I'd like to create a view on server x which references tables on an
entirely seperate server. Is this possible? Is seems
strange to have to copy the tables over just to create a view. In
the view wizard I can't seem to 'browse' to the tables on the other
server.
The code I'm working with would conceptually be something like this:
select server name.database instance.owner.table.field
I am creating a view for the table: bellus=# select * from host_application_definition; id | type_value | connection_value | group_value | application_value | host ----+------------+------------------+-------------+-------------------+----
From the table meta_host_types;
id | value | types | name ----+-------+-----------+-------- 1 | agm | host-type | Rencid
I would like to seperate value into type_value and connection_value, because it holds both values.
Hi i have 2 sql servers ie solomon(acounting package) and production server. so if i'll change the data ie customer info in solomon then it'll be update the data(related tables) in production server automatically.how it'll update the customer info from one server to another server automatically after making changes. thanx in advance reddy
In order to provide runtime, realtime, graphical feedback to ETL operators, I am planning to open a new winform when my packages start, and update the form via polling of events.
It is my understanding that this means I need to create a new thread for the winform from within the script task. Anyone done this via script task yet? Any reason why this couldn't work or shouldn't be done from the script task?
Would I be better off writing the winform app completely seperately and simply call it from an "execute process" task?
I have a view that shows the email address and first name of a Membership table. I need to add a column to this view that doesn't have a corresponding column in the original table that has some default value.
Hi everyone,I have 5 servers, all with identical databases just different data. Ihave a rather lengthy SQL statement (in a View) to hit one database andpull-in certain data, but I'd like to somehow run this same SQLstatement within the view but hit all 5 servers so we don't have 5different versions of this data to mess with.I'm not opposed to creating an update query in a stored procedure tohit all 5 databases and update a table or even do this within a DTS,but I'd prefer to keep it as simple as possible and as dynamic so theusers can simply run the view and get live data anytime based on all 5tables.Is this possible ???Thanks,rlangly
I need to create a view of a sql table, but change the data types. I knowthe syntax below is not correct, and can't figure out if it is wrong or ifyou just can't do this. I have only created views before with the same datatype.CREATE VIEW F0005New(DRKY nchar(3), DRDL01 nchar(30))INSERT (SELECT rtrim(F0005.DRKY), F0005.DRDL01FROM F0005 AS F0005WHERE DRSY = '41' AND DRRT = 'S1')Thanks!!
Create view All_employee AS SELECT Emp_Name, Emp_code FROM dbo.Employee UNION ALL SELECT Emp_Name, Emp_code FROM Emp_201402.Employee
But we have a different "Schema" for same table because we have archive table with same table name but with different schema name. Now we have req to make view which contain data of all table. But I can't seem to figure out how to do it in a view.
SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @Count INT, @TotalCount INT, @SQL VARCHAR( MAX ) DECLARE @Schema TABLE ( ID INT, NAME VARCHAR(512) ) INSERT INTO @Schema SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY SCHEMA_ID), Name FROM sys.schemas where name like '%emloyee%' ORDER BY schema_id ASC
[Code] ....
Don' think that works.
Is this possible with a view or it other way to do it?
I want to create a view to get records from multiple tables. I have a UserID in all the tables. When I pass UserID to view it should get records from multiple tables. I have a table
UserInfo with as data as UserID=1, FName = John, LName=Abraham and Industry = 2. I have a Industry table with data as ID=1 and Name= Sports, ID =2 and Name= Film.
When I query view where UserID=1 it should return record as
1. As per my current development SQL Sever Analysis Database consists of two Cube (Cube A and Cube B). Cube A and Cube B share the same data source view (DSV1). The source for both these cubes has the same data source (DS1).
2. As per the requirement I need to create third Cube i.e. Cube C. Is it possible to create a second Data Source View (DSV2). The Source of second Data Source View (DSV2) will be the same data source(DS1).
I am thinking to create second Data Source View (DSV2) for Cube C because existing layout of the DSV1 has become complex. I wanted to know the pros and cons of creating a multiple data source view with same data source
I created a data model for report builder. And since it wont let me use views, i tried to put all the tables im using in one of my already made views, to create a data source view like my sql view. But when i connect everything the same, my report model still doesnt narrow my search. I only want to see Breed information, but since i have a Breeder table,and Customer table, its showing me all customers, and not limiting it to the ones that are breeder customers.
heres the tables:
Code Snippet
FROM dbo.Tbl_Customer INNER JOIN dbo.Tbl_Customer_Breeder ON dbo.Tbl_Customer.Customer_Code = dbo.Tbl_Customer_Breeder.Customer_Code INNER JOIN dbo.Tbl_Customer_Detail ON dbo.Tbl_Customer.Customer_Code = dbo.Tbl_Customer_Detail.Customer_Code INNER JOIN dbo.Tbl_Customer_Category ON dbo.Tbl_Customer.Customer_Category_Id = dbo.Tbl_Customer_Category.Customer_Category_Id INNER JOIN dbo.Tbl_Customer_Classification ON dbo.Tbl_Customer.Customer_Classification_Id = dbo.Tbl_Customer_Classification.Customer_Classification_Id INNER JOIN dbo.Tbl_Customer_In_Breed ON dbo.Tbl_Customer.Customer_Code = dbo.Tbl_Customer_In_Breed.Customer_Code INNER JOIN dbo.Tbl_Breed ON dbo.Tbl_Customer_In_Breed.Breed_Id = dbo.Tbl_Breed.Breed_Id
What am i doing wrong, and are there any suggestions.
Hey all, Here is what I would like to do.. if any can give some advice or direction with this i would appreciate it.
We have a "master database" (MS SQL) at our main office. Then a smaller office with only a dial-up connection. Can I have my db application write all the data input to a local DB. Then write something to connect with the master DB, through a Terminal server, etc., and update it with the data from the other smaller db?
I've got a customer who thinks their data should be sepeated and reside on two seperate databases in case one is compromised. Now I've never heard of anyone doing this and would like comments from the users here as to why this should/(shoult not) be done.
I'm assuming that they want to keep their general info e.g. name and address on one database and keep other (medical info) on the other db.
None of our db's are outside of the firewalls so to me this makes no sense but I would like feedback.
I have a project were I will have it so that users can sign in and change information on an SQL server. The catch is that this site will be from a different domain name and from a different hosting company then where the SQL database is located. Sorry if this is a dumb question but how can I utilize asp.net to change and view an SQL database that is located else-where. For example: a user logs into www.something.com and he/she can view and edit SQL tables from www.somethingelse.com's database. Thanks in advance.
Write a CREATE VIEW statement that defines a view named Invoice Basic that returns three columns: VendorName, InvoiceNumber, and InvoiceTotal. Then, write a SELECT statement that returns all of the columns in the view, sorted by VendorName, where the first letter of the vendor name is N, O, or P.
This is what I have so far,
CREATE VIEW InvoiceBasic AS SELECT VendorName, InvoiceNumber, InvoiceTotal From Vendors JOIN Invoices ON Vendors.VendorID = Invoices.VendorID
I'm trying to replicate a SQL join across two seperate data sources in SSIS. If I were to write SQL to do this, it would be as follows:
SELECT Costs.CostRateEntryId,
Costs.UserId,
Costs.HourlyRate * 8 AS DailyCostRate,
Dates.DateKey,
Dates.ActualDate,
FROM Costs
INNER JOIN Dates ON Dates.ActualDate >= Costs.EffectiveDate AND Dates.ActualDate <= Costs.EndDate
Unfortunately, as the tables 'Dates' and 'Costs' are in two seperate SQL2005 systems, I can't really do this. I was hoping that it could be achieved in SSIS, but I cant seem to find any way that I can do a join that's <= or >=.
Hello everyone, Here's my situation... I'm running a web service which involves 51 seperate servers and databases. There are fifty licensee servers (One for each US state) and one corporate server. Each night I need to upload sales and membership data from the licensee's databases to the corporate database to compile reports. The application platform I'm using is ASP.NET 2.0 and the the database is SQL2005 express. I want this process to be run automatically, so I believe it's a scheduled windows service I need to setup up in .NET to make the data transfers. If anyone has already set something up like this, or knows the steps to take? I would love to have your input. Thanks in advance, Robert
I'm trying to create a proc for granting permission for developer, but I tried many times, still couldn't get successful, someone can help me? The original statement is:
I have two tables, one a data table, the other a product table. I want to perform a join on the two tables with values distributed into columns based on the value in the month field.
hi everybody, i want to create data source and data source view for data mining, with using C Sharp. i have create data source and data source view and export to XML file, but when i change to another computer, run those XML file, it return error, when i run statement to create and biuld mining model, what can i change on xml or how to run XML on another computer sucessfully, and have i build data source and data source view, how to do it.?
I had given one of our developers create view permissions, but he wants to also modify views that are not owned by him, they are owned by dbo.
I ran a profiler trace and determined that when he tries to modify a view using query designer in SQLem or right clicks in SQLem on the view and goes to properties, it is performing a ALTER VIEW. It does the same for dbo in a trace (an ALTER View). He gets a call failed and a permission error that he doesn't have create view permissions, object is owned by dbo, using both methods.
If it is doing an alter view how can I set permissions for that and why does it give a create view error when its really doing an alter view? Very confusing.
CREATE VIEW dbo.[ikw_custom] AS SELECT * FROM rns_keyword.dbo.ikw_custom
but if I use following command with condition it gives me an error.
if not exists(select * from sysobjects where name ='ikw_custom' and type='V') begin CREATE VIEW dbo.[ikw_custom] AS SELECT * FROM rns_keyword.dbo.ikw_custom end
help will be appriciated. Thanks in advance -Balbir
I am learning how to work with MSSQL here is what I like to do I have a table with URLs like this "www.urls.com" I need to create a view that will insert this "http://" before "www.urls.com" can some please let me know what I need to do Thank you
I'm new to SQL, and developing my first application using SQL 2000 as the back end for my data.
Can anyone tell me if I can create an SQL View from VBA?
I'm trying to create a data view that access various records from a single table, and it has to distribute that data 2 14 different subforms, representing different days in a 2 week period, which is distingiushed by a field called "Day", that is numbered from 1 to 14.
I also have a summary subform that has the weekly summary (days 1 to 7 and 8 to 14) on seperate subforms. In total I have 16 subforms, which actually source from a single table, just split depending on the day in the period.
As I see it now, creating views iis the best way for me to go, but I also have to be able to change the period id on the fly, so I'm think I have to use VBA to generate these views.
Does any of this make sense, and am I on the right track??
hi,if the below query select DISTINCT group_module_menu_info.menulink FROM user_group_role_info,group_role_module_info,group_ module_menu_info where user_group_role_info.userid=user_table.userid and ((group_module_menu_info.moduleid = user_group_role_info.moduleid)OR (user_group_role_info.roleid=group_role_module_inf o.roleid and group_module_menu_info.moduleid = group_role_module_info.moduleid))
Create a view showing every order that was shipped to Spain. Name the destination column "DestinationSpain". Include code that checks if the view already exists. If it does, it should be dropped and re-created.
Use Northwind Go DROP VIEW Spain_Orders Go CREATE VIEW Spain_Orders AS SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE ShipCountry = 'Spain'
this is what I get.
server: Msg 3701, Level 11, State 5, Line 1 Cannot drop the view 'Spain_Orders', because it does not exist in the system catalog.
I know IIf doesn't exist in SQL. However, I am creating a view and want to check the value of a field and if it is 1 the field returns 'This value' if it is 2 then 'That value' , if 3 then 'Another value'.
Hi Gurus,I'm a beginner. Would you please tell me if it's possible to create a viewhaving a calcuated column based on the condition of the column on the sqltable.create view vwImaging ASselectEmpID, LastName, FirstName, EmpTag = 'Act' ifFROM tblPerPayI have a table EMP:SSN (char 9)A view giving a formatted SSN (XXX-XX-XXXX,) a--Message posted via http://www.sqlmonster.com
Hi.I created a simple view with the following statements:CREATE VIEW dbo.VIEW1ASSELECT dbo.VIEW_ALL.ID,dbo.VIEW_ALL.Code,Another.dbo.OTHER_VIEW.Label as SpecialCodeFROM dbo.VIEW_ALL LEFT OUTER JOINAnother.dbo.OTHER_VIEW ON(dbo.VIEW_ALL.Code + '_0') = Another.dbo.OTHER_VIEW.LabelWhen I run :select * from VIEW1 where code = 'abcde',I would get all 10 rows that are of the same data where the code is'abcde'. But what I thought it should return is really just one rowsince the rest of the 9 rows are exactly the same! I know that I canget my result if I useselect DISTINCT * from VIEW1 where code = 'abcde'But, is there any way I could change my SQL statements(CREATE VIEW)above so that I automatically get 1 row instead of 10 rows of exactlythe same value without using DISTINCT?Thank you for any help.
I have a table in my program which going all the invoices,and I want to create a view where I can see the quantity of the products as many times by 1 as the quantity in the invoice:
