Hi ,
i am working with .net and as backhand using mySql.
i have done all configration to use the database drive, my problem is i want to insert a path of my xxx selected file from open dialog box. we all know very well that paht has back salesh like "c:data estfilename" that is cause of my problem when ever i insert a path into my table of mysql it accesses all put in different way like "catatestfilename".
that is what i hope u understood what i want to know.
any one who has some idea please mail me.
i will thankfull for your's concern.
bye
keep thinking.
Can I roll back certain query(insert/update) execution in one page if query (insert/update) in other page execution fails in asp.net.( I am using sqlserver 2000 as back end) scenario In a webpage1, I have insert query into master table and Page2 I have insert query to store data in sub table. I need to rollback the insert command execution for sub table ,if insert command to master table in web page1 is failed. (Query in webpage2 executes first, then only the query in webpage1) Can I use System. Transaction to solve this? Thanks in advance
While I have learned a lot from this thread I am still basically confused about the issues involved.
.I wanted to INSERT a record in a parent table, get the Identity back and use it in a child table. Seems simple.
To my knowledge, mine would be the only process running that would update these tables. I was told that there is no guarantee, because the OLEDB provider could write the second destination row before the first, that the proper parent-child relationship would be generated as expected. It was recommended that I create my own variable in memory to hold the Identity value and use that in my SSIS package.
1. A simple example SSIS .dts example illustrating the approach of using a variable for identity would be helpful.
2. Suppose I actually had two processes updating these tables, running at the same time. Then it seems the "variable" method will also have its problems. Is there a final solution other than locking the tables involved prior to updating them or doing something crazy like using a GUID for the primary key!
3. We have done the type of parent-child inserts I originally described from t-sql for years without any apparent problems. (Maybe we were just lucky.) Is the entire issue simply a t-sql one or does SSIS add a layer of complexity beyond t-sql that needs to be addressed?
I want to insert a new record into a table with an Identity field and return the new Identify field value back to the data stream (for later insertion as a foreign key in another table).
What is the most direct way to do this in SSIS?
TIA,
barkingdog
P.S. Or should I pass the identity value back in a variable and not make it part of the data stream?
SET @QUERY = "INSERT INTO tblDocTable(FileName, FileType, ImportExportID, BuildingID, Document)
SELECT '"+@fName+"' AS FileName, '"+@fType+"' AS FileType, " + cast(@fID as nvarchar(18)) + " as ImportExportID, '"+@bID+"' AS BuildingID, * FROM OPENROWSET( BULK '" +@fPath+"' ,SINGLE_BLOB)
AS Document"
EXEC (@QUERY)
This puts some values including a pdf or .doc file into a table, tblDocTable.
Is it possible to change this so that I can get the values from a table rather than as parameters. The Query would be in the form of: insert into tblDocTable (a, b, c, d) select a,b,c,d from tblimportExport.
tblImportExport has the path for the document (DocPath) so I would subsitute that field, ie. DocPath, for the @fPath variable.
Otherwise I can see only doing a Fetch next from tblIportExport where I would put every field into a variable and then run this exec query on these. Thus looping thru every row in tblImportExport.
All, Using access 2003 frontend and sql server 2008 backend. I have an append query to insert 80000 from one table to an empty table. I get an error:
"Microsoft Office Access set 0 field(s) to Null due to a type conversion failure, and didn't add 36000 record(s) to the table due to key violations, 0 record(s) due to lock violations, and 0 record(s) due to validation rule violations."
I know this error normally comes if there are dups in a field that doesnt allow.
OK, this one should be easy for you folks but my mind is drawing a blank. Can someone give me an example query to copy data from one table to another? Both tables already exist and both tables have the same table definition. tblA has data tblB is completely empty. I just want to copy from tblA into tblB.
I dont want to use the GUI, nor do I want to do a "Select * Into..."
Hi all...Can anyone give clue in doing below?Let say i have a table A with the following 3 fields. 1)Date2)Title 3)Status.i need to insert into table B (also have the same 3 fields) from thistable A with the condition where Title is "Alarm" and Status is "ON".This can be done by a simple "INSERT" query.However, there's a case for table A in like below:Date Title Status------ ------ ----------5/7/07 1:05:23am ALARM ON5/7/07 1:05:24am ALARM ON5/7/07 1:05:25am ALARM ACK5/7/07 1:05:25am ALARM ONBased on the table A above, i only need to insert from table A intotable B the first 2 ALARM(ON)s. The third ALARM(ON) which has the sameDate with ALARM(ACK) needs not to be inserted into table B.How can i write a simple SQL query which can insert all ALARM(ON)swhich doesnt have same date with ALARM(ACK)?Thanks. Pls help.Albert
I'm trying to insert records into "holding" table and write back identity column value (Entry_Key) to the original table. So my setup is I have two tables; tblEWPBulk and tbleFormsUploadEWP. Users will enter records into tblEWPBulk and use BatchID to group records, once batch entry has been completed (usually less than 30 records) user will click on UploadAll button and insert records (not all fields) into tbleFormsUploadEWP. One record in tblEWPBulk can be sent multiple times to the holding table but tblEWPBulk will need to have latest Entry_Key captured. Records are sent from holding table to DB2 z/VSE using SQL stored procedure and based on certain logic records are marked uploaded or certain error capture... that part works fine.
So for example I want to send
BatchID, AccountNumber, Period, ReceiveDate, AccountType, ReturnType, NetProfitOrLoss, TaxCredit FROM tblEWPBulk to the holding table and write back Entry_Key (identity column) back to the record in tblEWPBulk (field called UploadEntryKey). As I said one record could be sent to the holding table multiple times until uploaded or deleted and UploadEntryKey always needs to be updated so that when results are processed response from the DB2 can be inserted into table and presented to the user.
No foreign key relationship exists since records in the holding table get sent to the archive table and table is truncated and entry_key starting value reset back to 2000... just some DB2 restrictions.
Using Sql Server 2005 Express and Management Studio I need to create a SQL insert statement for the contents of a table (FullDocuments) so that I can run the query on another server with that same table schema (FullDocuments) and the contents will automatically be inserted into the new instance of the FullDocuments table.In Management Studio I have used "Script Table as" for the create table query. The second instance of FullDocuments has been created on the remote server. Now how do I generate an insert query for the contents of FullDocuments so that the contents can be moved/inserted to the new instance of the table?Thanks for any help provided.
i am do the following: insert into table_a ([field1a], [field2a], [field3a]) select field1b, field2b, field3b from tableb where datefield1b >= {variable datefield1} and datefield1b <= {variable datefield2} which is working. HOWEVER, i need to add/include 1 more record from tableb. My first inclination is to do a UPDATE to add that first record BUT i am wondering if there is a way to do a UNION to get that record? i need the next 1 RECORD that has a datefield1b value that is < {variable datefield1} so if my date range is 01/01/2007 thru 12/31/2007 i need to also include the previous 1 record from tableb that is < 01/01/2007. that date could be from 1 month to 24 months old. I don't want all those records because there could be a whole lot of them in there.
I cannot insert into my appointments table because the primary key and identity column, appt_id, cannot be added. What do I have to change in my SQL statement to add new records into this table? I'm using SQL Server 2000 BE with Access Data Project FE.tbl_appointment-------------------1. appt_id (pk) --- identity column, seed 25, increment 12. date_id3. time_start4. time_end5. appt_details6. lkp_emp_idPrivate Sub btnAddAppts_Click()On Error GoTo Err_btnAddAppts_ClickDim strsql As StringDoCmd.SetWarnings Falsestrsql = "INSERT INTO [tbl_appointments] (lkp_emp_id, date_id, time_start, time_end, appt_details) values ('" & txtLkpEmpID & "', '" & txtDateID & "', '" & txtStartTime & "', '" & txtEndTime & "', '" & txtApptDetails & "')"DoCmd.RunSQL strsqlDoCmd.SetWarnings TrueDoCmd.CloseExit_btnAddAppts_Click:Exit SubErr_btnAddAppts_Click:MsgBox Err.DescriptionResume Exit_btnAddAppts_ClickEnd Sub I did check through Access and through Enterprise Manager and it is setup correctly. So I returned all rows in enterprise manager to manually enter an appointment to the table. I get the same error when doing data-entry straight to the table. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Cannot update identity column 'appt_id'. It does not automatically populate the appt_id field the way it's supposed to. When I try to manually set a value in there, i get an error: "Cannot edit this cell."
I am trying to do a select statement and input the result to a different table how can this be done in one step? Now I am just coping to excel and importing back in this is a real pain.
I'm trying to update (increment) Company.SumtotalLogons from CompanyUsers.NumberOfLogons where CompanyUsers.CompanyID = Company.CompanyID
I'd like to either write a formula (if it is even possible to fire a formula from one table update/insert to increment a field in another table), or a stored procedure that triggers an auto update/append into Company.SumTotalLogons
I know this is possible in access, so i'm wondering how to go about it in ms-sql?
I have a query to insert records into a table based on a request but the query can only read one record at a time. How do i change the query such that it is able to read multiple records. In the below query i was able to input only 1 request which is 149906.
Query
declare @num_of_times int declare @Count INT DECLARE @newrequestid varchar(50) DECLARE @Frequency VARCHAR(25), @RequestId INT, @x INT, @Max INT, @RptDesc INT SET @RequestId = 149906 SET @x = 1
I have a query which is quite complex. It's based on a set of data ina complex view which takes the data from several tables.In this complex query, if I allow the various parts of the query towork on the results of the view (MISView), it can take 15 minutes torun (eek !), however, if I create a temporary table with the data fromthe view and then use that for the remainder of the query, it runs inapprox 20 seconds.Now, I have examined the execution plan (my new favourite toy) andthere is a difference (as expected). However when looking at the partof the query that takes up most of the time, it shows that it bringsback 109,645,866 records from a table (Credit) that contains 13,002records. This table is one that is referenced in the view (MISView)which contains 13,653 records and does get some of it's data from thetable which is scanned (Credit).For the record, we don't have any tables with over 100,000 records in,so 109 million rows is going some for us. The part of the query thatruns slow does reference another copy of itself but this is necessaryfor the equation that is being run.Now I'm OK with why it's doing the table scan, but why does it bringback substantially more data than is in the table ? Is it somemultiple of the number of records that it's trying to work out. Iassume it tries to run a seperate plan for the view as part of it'sprocess.Ideally, I'm still going to go down the route of the temporary table,but I would like to understand more about what it does first as Idon't like leaving things unanswered.Any help would be appreciated.
I am currently working on an application that requires, insertion of the results of a SQL Query in to the field of another table, in the form of a comma separated values.
For example, to explain things in detail:
create table dbo.phone_details
(country varchar(20), state varchar(30), list_of_toll_free_numbers text)
insert into dbo,phone_details values ( 'USA', 'CA', 'select Phone from phone_table where substring(phone, 1, 3) in ('800', '866', '877', '888')' )
The final output I desire is:
country state list_of_toll_free_numbers
---------- ------- ----------------------------------------- USA CA 8009877654, 8665764398, 8776543219
I'm written a query to pull adjustments made on customer accounts, and I am attempting to pull in the payment associated with the adjustments. I'm using a single account to test my query and somewhere in my final output select statement I'm doing something that is bringing me back more records than I want. The code I have written is:
IF OBJECT_ID('TEMPDB..#TMP1O') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE #TMP1O
I Have read a few of the postings and I hate to beat a dead horse. But I am desperatly looking for your Help...
I am converting all of my Access Databases over to SQL server 2005. but the catch is that I need to keep Access as my front-end. One of the problems that I have faced (and there maybe more) but when it comes to running queries (especially Delete), I cannot seem to get things to work.
I would like to just store all of my data in SS2K5 and have all of my queries and forms run in Access.
Why is it that I am getting errors that do not seem to make sense (Access Error 3086) when I have opened up all of the permissions associated to my database?
Please let me know if anyone has any type of solution, or some place that I can go to that will help me understand this a little more.
Hello,I'm trying to create a simple back up in the SQL Maintenance Plan that willmake a single back up copy of all database every night at 10 pm. I'd likethe previous nights file to be overwritten, so there will be only a singleback up file for each database (tape back up runs every night, so each daysback up will be saved on tape).Every night the maintenance plan makes a back up of all the databases to anew file with a datetime stamp, meaning the previous nights file stillexists. Even when I check "Remove files older than 22 hours" the previousnights file still exists. Is there any way to create a back up file withoutthe date time stamp so it overwrites the previous nights file?Thanks!Rick
