SELECT TOP 4000 * FROM wce_contact
where website not like ''
and expressemail like '%@%'
and idstatus like ''
and salutation not like '%there%'
and task not like '%x%'
I know that I can update a field like this...
update wce_contact
set task = ''
where task in ('x')
But how would I update a field that matches the above query? If you read my other post, this would eliminate the need for me to select a range of contacts.
Select website from wce_contact where uniqueid like
'O,U4Ba-l2Nmc' or uniqueid like 'O90kja8,aofc' or uniqueid like 'OIiZnaAHj1fc' or uniqueid like 'oho9mc2HA4fc' or uniqueid like 'ogJrMa.YV9mc' or uniqueid like 'PNocYaQtA6fc' or uniqueid like 'NLWTfcUSbXec' or uniqueid like 'O_eHjaNhPtfc' or uniqueid like 'OK(Qkau,H(fc' or uniqueid like 'nYcUfcCQbXec' or uniqueid like 'O-R5oa2C-2fc' or uniqueid like 'O-R5oa2C-2fc' or uniqueid like 'nPYhfat5eJec'
Is there anyway i can select these contacts without having to copy and paste 'or uniqueid like' numerous times?
I am currently workin on clearin a litte in our data collation, Can anyone tell me how i will get this to work.. I have this selected so far [URL=http://img247.imageshack.us/my.php?image=sqlresultatct2.png][/URL]
But i only want those selected who have the highest value in the last 3 columns in relation with their counterpart.... Anyway of doin that??
this is what i have to get the result-set
SELECT contact.contact_id, contact_p.p_name, contact_adr.adr_zip_code, contact_p.p_first_name, contact_p.p_last_name, form_land_i_os.cdp_1y81__, form_land_i_os.cdp_totalha, form_land_i_os.cdp_ha_krak FROM contact, contact dub_contact, contact_p, contact_p dub_contact_p, contact_adr, contact_adr dub_contact_adr, form_land_i_os, form_land_i_os dub_form_land_i_os, po_userdw WHERE (contact.deleted IS NULL AND dub_contact.deleted IS NULL AND dub_contact_adr.adr_zip_code IS NOT NULL AND contact.contact_status = 3 AND dub_contact.contact_status = 3 AND contact.p_id = contact_p.p_id AND dub_contact.p_id = dub_contact_p.p_id AND contact.adr_id = contact_adr.adr_id AND dub_contact.adr_id = dub_contact_adr.adr_id AND form_land_i_os.id = po_userdw.id AND dub_form_land_i_os.id = po_userdw.id AND po_userdw.relation_id = contact.contact_id AND contact_adr.adr_zip_code = dub_contact_adr.adr_zip_code AND contact_p.p_first_name = dub_contact_p.p_first_name AND contact_p.p_last_name = dub_contact_p.p_last_name AND contact.contact_id <> dub_contact.contact_id AND contact.adr_id <> dub_contact.adr_id AND contact_p.p_name <> 'X') ORDER BY contact_p.p_name
Thank you in advance wise gentlemen
Dont cross the road, if you cant get out of the kitchen
I'm new to SQL with 2 weeks under my belt....lol, so this may be a simple edit:
When I run the following query, I can get a list of all dups in the contact field: ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ SELECT full_name, COUNT(full_name) AS NumOccurrences FROM contact GROUP BY full_name HAVING ( COUNT(full_name) > 1 ) ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ However: I need to make sure I am de-activating (active = 0) only the contacts where they are listed more then once within the same company table (company.company_id) and the condition is that phone is NULL. I can't seem to make it work. Does anyone have any suggestions for an UPDATE I can use?
Guys Does anyone know of a 3rd party module/plug-in for VS or even some downloadable code that enables the import of Outlook/ACT and similar contact information through an ASP.NET page into a SQL Server table with ongoing 1-click button sync.
I need to replicate something similar to the Intellisync tool used in Yahoo Mail.
I'm in the process of trying to identify duplicate contacts. I doing this for millions of contacts and have gotten stuck and could use some elegant solutions!
The business rule is this:
Any contact that has the same name, phone and email address are the same contact Any contact that has the same name, and email address are the same contact Any contact that has the same name, email address, but different phone are a different contact. Any contact that has the same name, email address, and a blank phone can be the same contact as one that has the same name, email address, and has an email address Rank by the DataSource_fk. 1 being the highest
Put another way:
If 3 contacts have the same name, 2 have phone '1112223344' and all three have the email address 'johndoe@gmail.com' they are the same contact and the lowest DataSource_fk should be ranked the highest.
I've used the Row_number over (Partition by) in the past, but am unsure how to deal with the blanks in email and phone.
DROP TABLE [dbo].[TestBusinessContact]; GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TestBusinessContact] ( [TestBusinessContact_pk] INT IDENTITY(1,1)NOT NULL, [Business_fk]INT NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_TestBusinessContact_Business_fk DEFAULT(0),
Below is my sample data. I can't figure out how to select Unique phonenumber contacts for the same Ranked values from the set.
Basically the table is a mix of contactIDs. Some of them have duplicate phone numbers and through a separate mechanism we have ranked them.
It's easier then to pull out max(ranked) CLI_Numbers and their counterpart contactID(s). But I am also getting 2 or more records where the rank happens to be the same. I don't want that. Any one of the contactID will do for me.
The table has also same cliNumbers with different rank values, which are then correctly being picked up in the query below.
Note: ContactId is a unique value for each person in the table. RecordID is simply RowID.
( I have attempted to populate a sample data suited for this forum - not sure how it comes out on the browser)
if object_id('tempdb..#MyData') is not null drop table #MyData create table #MyData ( RecordID int, contactID int, forename varchar(25), surname varchar(25),
[Code] ....
This is my query attempt
With RankedmobileDuplicateSet as( select cliNumber, max(ranked_value) as ranked_max_value from #temp_UK_mobiledata group by cliNumber)
I get the error "The column prefix 'contacts' does not match with a table name or alias used in the query".I am trying to obtain all fields from the communications table whether it is used or NULL.
Before I begin describing our problem, let me first start off with a description of our environment and current configuration.
Background/Configuration Specs
We have SQL Server Reporting Services running on a Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition, Service Pack 1 server. It is configured so that the Reports and ReportServer virtual directories run under a sql server domain account.
The datasets for our reports are xml datasets returned from calling a web service on a second IIS server, Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition, Service Pack 1. The web service runs under a service account and is not set to impersonate the user. The web service contacts a database located on the same server as reporting services to retrieve the data. So, it should receive the request, login to the database it is trying to access using the service account, and return the dataset.
We are programatically accessing reports via a client application, specifying the virtual directory via the reportserver url (e.g. http:\hostname\reportserver\virtual directory path\report name).
Kerberos is enabled on both the sql box and the iis box with constrained delegation allow the sql account access to the iis box.
Problem
When I try to browse to the report from Report Manager in IE, (http:\hostname\Reports\...etc) I am able to successfully view the report.
When I try to view the report in the client app, (http:\hostname\reportserver\...etc.) the report fails.
Looking at the iis logs, it appears that in the first case, the web service is receiving the request from the sql server domain account. In the second case, it appears that the web service is receiving the request from an anonymous login.
Questions
What exactly is the difference between rendering/viewing a report via ReportManager versus programatically via ReportServer?
Is there any configuration we need to be aware of when configuring ReportServer?
Any help you can provide would be very much appreciated.
I have to extract, dayly a list of contacts on a exchange server in a table on our EDW on sql server 2005. Is it possible to get the information directly from a dataflow or i will have to developpe a script task ?
Can anyone take me through synchronization of contacts within Business Contacts Outlook into Microsoft Small Business Accounts?
I run a stand alone PC with NO network. When SBA came SQL was also installed. Apparently you can synchronise Contacts within Business Contacts with SBA but both SBA & Outlook should work through the same SQL server.
update xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit: Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit: Could it be to do with this linked server setting? Collation Compatible right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane... (0 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect) (1 row(s) affected) If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it. Thanks
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
The Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID) objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1 objRS.update End If objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID) objConn.Execute strSQL1
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE( ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL, LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName) VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL FROM MYOTHERTABLE
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update from stored PROCEDURE multi update but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
It appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
I'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown. The C# code: SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID"); int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text); cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath(); try { conn.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch(Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { conn.Close(); } The Stored Procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL ( @accomId int, @path varchar(250) ) AS DECLARE @enabled bit, @oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */ SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1) BEGIN /* Now check if a path already exists */ SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL BEGIN /* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */ /* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */ INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect (oldpath, accom_id) VALUES (@path,@accomId) END END RETURN
I'm new to this forum. This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it. I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values. Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank? Thank you very much.
I do realize that his could be posted in a few spots but I think the answer is in the SQL. I have a ASP.NET page, with a SqlDataSource, Text Box and Calendar Controls. I have the textbox and calendar controls eval'ed to the same sql data source DateTime Field. The text box is formatted eval to small time and the calendars eval has no formatting. ex: <asp:TextBox ID="START_TIME" Text='<%# Eval("EVENT_START","{0:t}") %>' runat=server Width=200></asp:TextBox> I want to merge the two controls; one has the date the other has the time when I update the pages data to the SqlDataSource field EVENT_START. I've tried a couple of methods, but I would like some other opinions. As Sql server only supports date and time together I am storing the two together. I could merge the two together in the code behind on the update button's event handler or merge the two during the update query using parameters. Not that I could get an illegal date for the calendar control, but I could get garbage from the textfield time. So I still would have to do validation on the text field before the SQL server could do the update. There's a few ways to go about this, so I was wondering if anyone else has figured out an elegant way to handle it. wbochar
I want to update two tables in one page. So I created two FormView bound on two SqlDataSource controls, and I create a Update button on the bottom of page. And I writen some codes as below: btnUpate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e){ sqlDataSource1.Update(); sqlDateSource2.Update();} But, the records haven't updated. In SqlDataSource2_Updating() function, I found all the parameters is null. So, how to modify my code to do it.
I want to retrieve the last update time of database. Whenever any update or delete or insert happend to my database i want to store and retrieve that time.
I know one way is that i have to make a table that will store the datetime field and system trigger / trigger that can update this field record whenever any update insert or deletion occur in database.
But i don't know exactly how to do the coding for this?
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
I'm writing a fairly involved stored procedure. In this Stored Procedure, I have an update statement, followed by a select statement. The results of the select statement should be effected by the previous update statement, but its not. When the stored procedure is finish, the update statement seemed to have worked though, so it is working.
I suspect I need something, like a GO statement, but that doesnt seem to work for a stored procedure. Can anyone offer some assistance?
Hi! Select gets all records that contains illegal chars... Ok, to replace '[' { and some other chars I will make AND '% .. %' and place other intervals, that is not the problem.The problem is: How to replace not allowed chars ( ! @ # $ % ^ & * ( ) etc. ) with '_' ?I have seen that there is a function REPLACE, but can't figure out how to use it. 1 SELECT user_username 2 FROM users 3 WHERE user_username LIKE '%[!-)]%';
