Hi,
How can i store the record insert/update timestamp in a SQL server 2000 db programacally. ? what are the date/time functions in ASP.NET 2.0 ?
I know that this can be done by setting the default valut to getdate() function in SQL, but any other way on ASP page or code-behind page ???
Thanks,
Alex
I have current current sql server 2000 database containing some columns in big5. To display these cols correctly, my asp.net nust have directive with CodePage="1252" ContentType="text/html;charset=BIG5". I can not update, or insert big5 character into these columns via .aspx page. I'm using .net framework 2.0. Please help me, thanks a lot for any help.
View 7 Replies View RelatedI am populating oracle source in Sql Server Destination. after few rows it fails it displays this error:
[OLE DB Destination [16]] Error: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80004005. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description:
"Invalid date format".
I used this script component using the following code in between the adapters, However after 9,500 rows it failed again giving the same above error:
To convert Oracle timestamp to Sql Server timestamp
If Row.CALCULATEDETADATECUST_IsNull = False Then
If IsDate(DateSerial(Row.CALCULATEDETADATECUST.Year, Row.CALCULATEDETADATECUST.Month, Row.CALCULATEDETADATECUST.Day)) Then
dt = Row.CALCULATEDETADATECUST
Row.CALCULATEDETADATECUSTD = dt
End If
End If
I don't know if my code is right . Please inform, how i can achieve this.
Anybody know how to or if we can programatically insert a pagebreak. in a table. Yes, I know about the ones at group footer and header these arn't doing what I need.
vbwrangler@yahoo.com
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
Just a quick question: Does SQL server 2000 store any identity information for tables in terms of the time a row gets inserted or are you forced to track this yourself? Thanks!
View 12 Replies View RelatedHello all. This is my first time on this forum.
I have a problem that i wonder if anyone can help me with.
I received data from a colleague in a CSV file format. This file contained a timestamp column. I had to change this into a .txt file and tried to export the data into a database. However, the timestamps didnt get inserted. Is there anyway i can do this as i need the timestamp values for my queries?
thanks
Hi!
How would I go about updating the date in a column with time&date like this "2/2/2003 12:13:45 AM". Is there a easy way to change this on a MSDE dB with a query in Access2000. Could I use a substring function or something?
This is what i've come up with til now:
UPDATE table
SET tablename.column = '2/29/2003 ' + [somefunc(column,something)]
WHERE tablename.column = '3/1/2003 ' + [somefunc(column,something)]
If you have any good Answeers please post them. Thank's
Regard's Christian Kirk
Hello readers,
I am using SQL Server 2005. and i use optimistic Concurrency
based on Timestamp column.
After updating a record, the database engine changes the timestamp column's value,
and we normally fill the record again in the application to get the latest Timestamp value.
I want to know the following:
[As in - INSERT we use Scope_Identity() with output parameters
to get the primary key generated by the database]
Similarly is there any function to get the Timestamp generated after the update.
I know there is @@DBTS but this only works for Inserts (for me atleast. may be i am using it wrongly)
If there is any such function or method for this, this will save a roundtrip to the server
saving so many resources.
If anyone can help me on this, it would be realy realy great.
Thanking in advance for your time to read this.
Regards - H C.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine.
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks
Hi,I'm attempting to update one row using strored procedure which check timestamp field.
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sysobjects WHERE type = 'P' AND name = 'tbCharakterystyki_Update')BEGINDROP Procedure tbCharakterystyki_UpdateENDGO
CREATE Procedure dbo.tbCharakterystyki_Update@CH_ID int ,@CH_CHARAKTERYSTYKA VARCHAR(30),@CH_OPIS VARCHAR(300),@CH_TIMESTAMP timestampAS
UPDATE tbCharakterystyki SET ch_charakterystyka = @CH_CHARAKTERYSTYKA,
ch_opis = @CH_OPIS
WHERE ch_id = @CH_ID AND ch_timestamp = @CH_TIMESTAMP
GO
Function which call stored procedure:public int CallSP(DataRow dr) { try { SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(this.strConnection); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(); cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "dbo.tbCharakterystyki_Update";
SqlParameter p1 = new SqlParameter(); p1.ParameterName = "@CH_ID"; p1.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Int; p1.Value = dr[0];
SqlParameter p2 = new SqlParameter(); p2.ParameterName = "@CH_CHARAKTERYSTYKA"; p2.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p2.Value = dr[1];
SqlParameter p3 = new SqlParameter(); p3.ParameterName = "@CH_OPIS"; p3.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p3.Value = dr[2];
SqlParameter p4 = new SqlParameter(); p4.ParameterName = "@CH_TIMESTAMP"; p4.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p4.Value = dr[3];
cmd.Parameters.Add(p1); cmd.Parameters.Add(p2); cmd.Parameters.Add(p3); cmd.Parameters.Add(p4); cmd.Connection.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); cmd.Connection.Close(); return 0; } catch ( Exception err ) { ShowError(err.Message) return null; } }
And function which call "CallSP()":private void Update(){DataSet ds = helper.GiveDataSetCharakterystyki()DataRow dr = ds.Tables[0].Select("ch_id=51")[0];
dr[1] = "new value";CallSP(dr);}When I fire Update(), stored procedure (dbo.tbCharakterystyki_Update) is not started, Sql Profiler doesn't show it.Whilst when I modify stored procedure, removing WHERE ch_id = @CH_ID AND ch_timestamp = @CH_TIMESTAMP and put only WHERE ch_id = @CH_ID , it works perfectly.What I did wrong?
ASP.NET application, MS SQL DB, and a table with a timestamp(8) column.
Error:
Cannot insert a non-null value into a timestamp column. Use INSERT with a column list or with a default of NULL for the timestamp column.
I'm using an SQLDataAdapter and typed DataSet, inserting a row into the dataset, and calling Update() to send changes to the DB.
The thing that baffles me about receiving this error, is that the DB column can be null and I get this error wheter I attempt to insert NULL or a valid byte array into the column.
(No - I am not trying to insert a datetime into the column.)
The error just doesn't seem too descriptive of the problem I'm having, and I'm quite confused.
All help greatly appreciated!
Slezak
I can not insert CURRENT_TIMESTAMP into column type timestamp
I defined a data Table that has column type timestamp.
I did not achieve insert CURRENT_TIMESTAMP data into column typed timestamp.
My statement is below.What is wrong with it? Thanks
set @cmdS2 = 'Insert Into TABLOLAR Values(' + CHAR(39) + @TABLO + CHAR(39) + ',' + CHAR(39) + @TABLO_ACIKLAMASI + CHAR(39) + ',' + CHAR(39) + CURRENT_TIMESTAMP + CHAR(39) + ',' + CHAR(39) + @KLLNC + CHAR(39) + ')'
I have been provided with a table where one of the columns is of TimeStamp data type. My question is how to insert and update data in this column through my SQL Statement? When I run my SQL statement, it gives me an error with this column name in the error.
View 3 Replies View RelatedHi,
There's a nullable Timestamp data type column in all tables in Sage SQL database.
When using Insert SQL query add a new record, with a NULL for the Timestamp column, into a table it seems alright. When opening the table it shows the inserted data in the Timestamp column is Binary. But when reading the record by Sage program there's an error message as the following:
'Fractional truncation: table scheme.opheadm unique_no 24969592 1'.
Any idea what the problem is?
Thanks,
Yabing
I know 2008 MS SQL Server has a timestamp data type that adds date and time when the rows are inserted. Is there a way to automatically update the date and time when the rows are updated?
View 5 Replies View RelatedHi Everyone,
We have a table in SqlServer 2000 with a column type TimeStamp and contain value such as 0x00000000656AC51F. Are there any way for me to convert that value back to DateTime? I tried to use cast function like:
Select cast (MyTimeStampCol as DateTime) myDate from MyTableand I encountered error below.
Msg 8115, Level 16, State 2, Line 1
Arithmetic overflow error converting expression to data type datetime.
Regards,
JDang
date time s-sitename TimeTaken(Seconds)
6/8/2015 10:56:26 TestSite 100
6/8/2015 10:56:26 TestSite 500
6/8/2015 10:56:26 TestSite 800
6/9/2015 11:56:26 TestSite 700
6/9/2015 11:56:26 TestSite 200
6/12/2015 12:56:26 TestSite 700
I have a table with above values, I am looking for a sql query to find AvgTimeTaken at different time stamps and total count of each time stamp
Output
date time s-sitename TimeTaken(Seconds) Count_of_Request
6/8/2015 10:56:26 TestSite 1400 3
6/9/2015 11:56:26 TestSite 900 2
6/12/2015 12:56:26 TestSite 700 1
we are running SQL7.0. I execute a store procedure on Server A that insert a data into the table on Server B. I use a Link Server to connect from Server A to Server B. When I execute the SP, I got the messege 'The command(s) completed successfully'. When I select from the table was inserted, I don't see the data that was inserted. Can we update or insert tabel using Link Server.
Thanks.
HelloI used to work in a Sybase database environment. When I had to insert/update records in the database, I always used "insert on existingupdate", in this way, you didn't have to check whether a recordalready existed (avoid errors) and you were always sure that afterrunning the scripts, the last version was in the database.Now I'm looking for the same functionality in MS SQL Server, asked afew people, but nobody knows about such an option.Does anybody here knows the SQL Server counterpart of "insert onexisting skip/update"? If this doesn't exist, this is a minus forMS ;).Greetz,Bart
View 4 Replies View RelatedHi!
I am trying to update my table Members in my SQL server database "Portfolio".
When I click the button, It throws an exception with the following message: "String or binary data would be truncated.
The statement has been terminated."
The code I wrote is as follows:
Private Sub UpdateUser()
If Page.IsValid Then
Dim cmd As New SqlCommand
Dim sqlQuery As String
Dim sb As New StringBuilder
Dim values As New ArrayList
sb.Append("UPDATE Members SET ")
sb.Append("Email='{0}', UserName='{1}', Pass_word='{2}'")
sb.Append("WHERE MemberID='{3}'")
values.Add(txtEmail.Text)
values.Add(txtUserName.Text)
values.Add(txtPassword.Text)
values.Add(Context.User.Identity.Name)
sqlQuery = String.Format(sb.ToString(), values.ToArray())
cmd = New SqlCommand(sqlQuery, SqlConnection1)
SqlConnection1.Open()
Try
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery()
lblMessage.Visible = True
lblMessage.Text = "You have updated your details successfully!"
Catch ex As Exception
lblMessage.Visible = True
lblMessage.ForeColor = Color.Red
lblMessage.Text = "Couldn't update your details!"
Trace.Warn(ex.Message)
Finally
SqlConnection1.Close()
End Try
End If
End Sub
I have already retrieved the data with a select statement in the Load event of the page.
I have tried to debug it but all the data seems to be loading in the right fields and the connection also opens normally.
If someone can explain to me I would be very grateful.
I have an application that calculates a bunch of numbers and then inserts them into a table (or updates a record in the table if it exists). In my test environment it is issuing 100 insert or update requests to the server per second and it could run for several hours.After a the first several hundred requests, the SQL server is bogging down (processor at 90-100%) and the application slows down while it waits on SQL to update the database.What would be the best way to optimize this app? Would it help to loop through all my insert/update requests and then send them as one big batch of statements to the server (per 1000 requests or something)? Is there a better way of doing this?Thanks!
View 1 Replies View RelatedHi Iam trying to do a trigger that everytime I Update a record de date get update too I finally find a trigger close to that, but this trigger update all the dates from all the record of the same table I wonder is there are a way that I can do it by the date of the record, if somebody could help I will really appreciate.
Thi is the trigger that I have so far
Create Trigger Update_Date
on DBO.Company After Update as
Update dbo.Company
Set ActualiizationDate=Getdate()
go
I have two tables in an inner join. I'm detailing the tables with some of their fields below. These tables are in a database I'm creating to manage backup tapes. Most importantly, this database will inform me when backup tapes which have already been used can be recycled (e.g. after all the jobs on the tape are over 28 days old). I want to write something which will look at each tape in turn and, if all related backup jobs on that tape are aged, the tape status will be changed from Active to Spare.
Tapes
--TapeNo
--Status (Spare / Assigned)
Jobs
--JobNo
--Name
--Description
--TapeNo
--AgedJob (BIT field indicating whether or not the job has aged)
Each tape can have 0, 1 or many jobs and each job can be on more than one tape.
Anyway, I have the tables and relationsips set up and they're ok. Again, what I'm struggling with is how I take each tape and look at all its jobs and, if all have aged, change the Status for the tape to Spare. I'm using SQL Server 2000 (Access 2003 as front end) and am pretty new to SQL. I was thinking this could be done by using some kind of update query and subquery, but I'm stumped. Could someone please help ?
--
Paul Anderson
I have two tables:T1 : Key as bigint, Data as char(20) - size: 61M recordsT2 : Key as bigint, Data as char(20) - size: 5M recordsT2 is the smaller, with 5 million records.They both have clustered indexes on Key.I want to do:update T1 set Data = T2.Datafrom T2where T2.Key = T1.KeyThe goal is to match Key values, and only update the data field of T1if they match. SQL server seems to optimize this query fairly well,doing an inner merge join on the Key fields, however, it then does aHash match to get the data fields and this is taking FOREVER. Ittakes something like 40 mins to do the above query, where it seems tome, the data could be updated much more efficiently. I would expectto see just a merge and update, like I would see in the followingquery:update T1 set Data = [someconstantdata]from T2where T2.Key = T1.Key and T2.Data = [someconstantdata]The above works VERY quickly, and if I were to perform the above query5 mil times(assuming that my data is completely unique in T2 and Iwould need to) it would finish very quickly, much sooner than theprevious query. Why won't SQL server just match these up while it ismerging the data and update in one step? Can I make it do this? If Iextracted the data in sorted order into a flat file, I could write aprogram in ten minutes to merge the two tables, and update in onestep, and it would fly through this, but I imagine that SQL server iscapable of doing it, and I am just missing it.Any advice would be GREATLY appreciated!
View 3 Replies View RelatedHi all,
I have a trigger for column eISBNEnteredDate on update or insert changes of eISBN of the table Products2 ( both belong to the same table). The column eISBNEnteredDate can either be added manually along with eISBN value or when only eISBN value is entered it is updated with present date.
The problem I am facing is when I send eISBN along with eISBNEnteredDate the present date is what is getting saved. Upon the same record when a new date is updated the new date is getting saved. Can someone tell me where I am going wrong?
Here is my trigger:
Code Block
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[Products2_eISBNEnteredDate] ON [dbo].[Products2]
For Insert, Update
As
Begin
Declare @ProductId int
Declare @eISBN Varchar(17)
Set @eISBN = '0'
If ( Update(eISBN) )
Begin
Select @Productid = I.Productid,@eISBN = I.eISBN
From Inserted I Left Join Deleted d on I.Productid = D.Productid
Left join Products2 P on P.Productid = I.Productid
Where (ISNULL(I.eISBN,'') <> ISNULL(D.eISBN,''))
If (IsNull(@eISBN,'') <> '' and IsNull(@eISBN,'') <> '0')
Begin
Update Products2
Set eISBNEnteredDate = getdate()
Where ProductID in (select i.ProductID
From Inserted i
Left join Deleted d on d.ProductID = i.ProductID
Where (i.eISBN is not null or replace(i.eISBN,' ','') != '') --where the new eISBN is not null or blank
and (d.eISBN is null or replace(d.eISBN,' ','') = '') --where the old eISBN is null or blank
and isnull(i.eISBN,'') != isnull(d.eISBN,'') --where the new eISBN is not equal to the old ISBN13
and d.eISBNEnteredDate is null)
End
If IsNull(@eISBN,'') = '' and IsNull(@eISBN,'') = ''
Begin
Update Products2
set eISBNEnteredDate = NULL
Where ProductID = @Productid
End
End
End
I need to do a conditional insert, and I am afraid that if I do it in 2 steps it will create bugs...I have a table called customers and a table called lockscustomers has 3 fields CustomerID, FirstName, and LastNamelocks has fields LockID, CustomerID, UserID, SessionID, and TimeStampI need to check if there are any records in Locks for a CustomerID and if there are none, I need to insert One.This is going to tell my application that this Customer record is locked so no one else can edit it, until the Lock record is deleted.I just don't want to make 2 trips, One to check if the Lock exists, then One to insert the Lock, since this could allow 2 locks to be created if the timing is correct.Any ideas or comments?
View 1 Replies View RelatedHi everybody !!! I have a problem with database SQL server 2000, and I need anyone help me.
I have PC machine with hardware configuration following:
+ RAM : 512M
+ CPU : 2.4 GHz (intel Pentium 4)
+ System : Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprice Edition , Service Pack 1
(this is call Machine1 )
and other Server machine with hardware configuration the following :
+ RAM : 2G
+ CPU : 3.6 GHz( intel Xeon)
+System : Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprice Edition , Service Pack 2
(use RAID 5)
(this is call Machine2 )
.And SQL Server 2000 is installed in these machine.
I created one table and one script to insert several records into this table. and script for inserting:
declare @count int , @max int
set @count =1
set @max = 5000
WHILE (@count < @max or @count = @max)
BEGIN
insert into TBAT_STOCKEOD(TRDT,SEQNO,COMPID,TRANSTYPE) values('20071219',cast(@count as varchar(5)),'13215','1')
set @count = @count +1
END
I execute this script on Machine1 and Machine2 :
+ Machine1 : spent 3 seconds.
+ Machine2 : spent 30 seconds. I don't understand why Machine2 is slower than Machine1 ( while configuration of Machine2 is better than Machine1's ). I don't know what happen.
I checked resource usages in perfmon when SQL server execute script and result following :
Machine1:
Proccessor used 100%
whereas,Machine2 used physical Disk 100%
Is there the way to configurate SQL server to improve speed writting of hard disk?
All:
I have created a stored procedure on SQL server that does an Insert else Update to a table. The SP starts be doing "IF NOT EXISTS" check at the top to determine if it should be an insert or an update.
When i run the stored procedure directly on SQL server (Query Analyzer) it works fine. It updates when I pass in an existing ID#, and does an insert when I pass in a NULL to the ID#.
When i run the exact same logic from my aspx.vb code it keeps inserting the data everytime! I have debugged the code several times and all the parameters are getting passed in as they should be? Can anyone help, or have any ideas what could be happening?
Here is the basic shell of my SP:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[spHeader_InsertUpdate]
@FID int = null OUTPUT,@FLD1 varchar(50),@FLD2 smalldatetime,@FLD3 smalldatetime,@FLD4 smalldatetime
AS
Declare @rtncode int
IF NOT EXISTS(select * from HeaderTable where FormID=@FID)
Begin begin transaction
--Insert record Insert into HeaderTable (FLD1, FLD2, FLD3, FLD4) Values (@FLD1, @FLD2, @FLD3,@FLD4) SET @FID = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); --Check for error if @@error <> 0 begin rollback transaction select @rtncode = 0 return @rtncode end else begin commit transaction select @rtncode = 1 return @rtncode end endELSE
Begin begin transaction
--Update record Update HeaderTable SET FLD2=@FLD2, FLD3=@FLD3, FLD4=@FLD4 where FormID=@FID;
--Check for error if @@error <> 0 begin rollback transaction select @rtncode = 0 return @rtncode end else begin commit transaction select @rtncode = 2 return @rtncode end
End---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Thanks,
Blue.
I am experimenting with using CDC to track user changes in our application database. So far I've done the following:
-- ENABLE CDC ON DV_WRP_TEST
USE dv_wrp_test
GO
EXEC sys.sp_cdc_enable_db
GO
-- ENABLE CDC TRACKING ON THE AVA TABLE IN DV_WRP_TEST
USE dv_wrp_test
[Code] ....
The results shown above are what I expect to see. My problem occurs when I use our application to update the same column in the same table. The vb.net application passes a Table Valued Parameter to a stored procedure which updates the table. Below is the creation script for the stored proc:
SET ANSI_NULLS ON
GO
SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
GO
if exists (select * from sysobjects where id = object_id('dbo.spdv_AVAUpdate') and sysstat & 0xf = 4)
drop procedure dbo.spdv_AVAUpdate
[Code] ....
When I look at the results of CDC, instead of operations 3 and 4, I see 1 (DELETE) and 2 (INSERT) for the change that was initiated from the stored procedure:
-- GET CDC RESULTS FOR CHANGES TO AVA TABLE
USE dv_wrp_test
GO
SELECT *
FROM cdc.dbo_AVA_CT
GO
--RESULTS SHOW OPERATION 1 (DELETE) AND 2 (INSERT) INSTEAD OF 3 AND 4
--__$start_lsn__$end_lsn__$seqval__$operation__$update_maskAvaKeyAvaDescAvaArrKeyAvaSAPAppellationID
--0x0031E84F000000740008NULL0x0031E84F00000074000230x02119Test26NULL
--0x0031E84F000000740008NULL0x0031E84F00000074000240x02119Test36NULL
--0x0031E84F00000098000ANULL0x0031E84F00000098000310x0F119Test36NULL
--0x0031E84F00000098000ANULL0x0031E84F00000098000420x0F119Test46NULL
Why this might be happening, and if so, what can be done to correct it? Also, is there any way to get the user id associated with the CDC?
I have Table Staffsubjects
with columns and Values
Guid AcademyId StaffId ClassId SegmentId SubjectId Status
1 500 101 007 101 555 1
2 500 101 007 101 201 0
3 500 22 008 105 555 1
I need to do 3 scenarios in this table.
1.First i need to update the row if the status column is 0 to 1
2.Need to insert the row IF SegmentId=@SegmentId and SubjectId<>@SubjectId and StaffId=@StaffId
3.Need to insert the row IF StaffId<>@StaffId And ClassId=@ClassId and SegmentId<>@SegmentId and SubjectId<>@SubjectId
I have wrote the stored procedure to do this. But the problem is If do the update. It is reflecting in the database by changing 0 to 1. But it shows error like cannot insert the duplicate
Here is the stored Procedure what i have wrote
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[InsertAssignTeacherToSubjects]
@AcademyId uniqueidentifier,
@StaffId uniqueidentifier,
@ClassId uniqueidentifier,
@SegmentId uniqueidentifier,
@SubjectId uniqueidentifier
[Code] ....
If a column is set to allow nulls I know that a constraint can be used to supply a default (i.e. GetDate() ) when no value is provided but what about when an explicit NULL is provided in an INSERT or UPDATE statement?Is there any way other then an AFTER trigger to substitute a value for an explicitly provided NULL? In other words, assuming that dtAsof is a NULL enabled column, is there any way to over ride what the following will do to MYTABLE:
INSERT MYTABLE(sCol1, sCol2, sCol3, dtAsOf)
SELECT 'a', 'b', 'c', NULL
If there's no way to do this in SQL Server 2008R2 then what about later versions of SQL Server? Do any more recent versions have a way to deal with this? We have a third party app that uses a SQL Server back end and many of the tables have columns for storing audit like data such as date/time but many are left to NULL values and I'd really like to fix that in as passive a way as possible so as to not break the app that uses the database. I know a constraint with a default can be sued to over ride a null but not when a null is explicitly provided.
Hi,I have an application that's running fine on development servers (weband database-sql server 2000). I'm updating a record through a thirdparty component but I don't think the component is the problem. What'shappening is that I'm updating fields that are part of view. I'm onlyupdating fields in one table of the view and this works fine in thedevelopment environment.What happens in the production environment when I try to update(using the third party component) I get the following message:"Current recordset does not support updating. This may be a limitationof the provider or of the selected locktype."As an experiment I took the same code but removed the view, leavingonly the table I want to update as the record source. In that case theupdate worked. So it seems that something in the production databasedoesn't like me updating a view. However I can do that in the databasein the development environment.The third party component is dbnetgrid which works fine in thedevelopment environment. I can only conclude it's something about thedatabase that prevents me from updating this same table if it's in aview. I've talked to our DBA but he says there's no difference betweenthe databases. Any ideas would be appreciated.Neil
View 2 Replies View Related