Hi All,
I am trying to update a huge table with about 70 million records and the table do not have a primary key.
I want to update a "FLAG" field in the table with value 'N' default value of flag fields for all records is NULL.
I want to update the whole table in chunks say 50,000 records a time...
like
update tablename (first 50000)
set flag = 'N' where flag = NULL.
Hope I am clear..:-)
thanks
hardlyworking..
the stored procedure don't delete all the records
need help
Code Snippet
DECLARE @empid varchar(500)
set @empid ='55329429,58830803,309128726,55696314'
DELETE FROM [Table_1]
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[empid])+',',','+@empid+',') > 0
UPDATE [empList]
SET StartDate = CONVERT(DATETIME, '1900-01-01 00:00:00', 102), val_ok = 0
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[empid])+',',','+@empid+',') > 0
UPDATE [empList]
SET StartDate = CONVERT(DATETIME, '1900-01-01 00:00:00', 102), val_ok = 0
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[empid])+',',','+@empid+',') > 0
TNX
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update
from stored PROCEDURE multi update
but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update
like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
i update like this
Code Snippet
:
DECLARE @id nvarchar(1000)
set @id= '16703, 16704, 16757, 16924, 17041, 17077, 17084, 17103, 17129, 17134, 17186, 17190, 17203, 17205, 17289, 17294, 17295, 17296, 17309, 17316, 17317, 17322, 17325, 17337, 17338, 17339, 17348, 17349, 17350, 17357, 17360, 17361, 17362, 17366, 17367, 17370, 17372, 17373, 17374, 17377, 17380, 17382, 17383, 17385, 17386, 17391, 17392, 17393, 17394, 17395, 17396, 17397, 17398, 17400, 17401, 17402, 17407, 17408, 17409, 17410, 17411, 17412, 17413, 17414, 17415, 17417, 17418, 17419, 17420, 17422, 17423, 17424, 17425, 17426, 17427, 17428, 17430, 17431, 17432, 17442, 17443, 17444, 17447, 17448, 17449, 17450, 17451'
UPDATE s SET fld5 = 2
FROM Snha s
JOIN dbo.udf_SplitList(@id, ',') split
ON split.value = s.na
WHERE fld5 = 3
now
how to send an EMAIL for evry ROW update but "personal email" to the employee
Code Snippet
DECLARE @xml NVARCHAR(MAX)DECLARE @body NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET @xml =CAST(( SELECT
FirstName AS 'td','',
LastName AS 'td','' ,
SET @body = @body + @xml +'</table></body></html>'
EXEC msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail
@recipients =''
@copy_recipients='www@iec.com',
@body = @body,
@body_format ='HTML',
@subject ='test',
@profile_name ='bob'
END
ELSE
print 'no email today'
TNX
It appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
View 5 Replies View RelatedBeing an access guy, I am having a hard time understanding why I can't do a join statement on an UPDATE?
What is the alternatives??
I have to match two tables up and use records from one to update the other and creating a view isn't working....
Hi,
I need to update LastReceivedQty and LastReceivedDate fields in the Product table each time a DeliveryNoteDetail entry is created for a PurchaseOrderDetail line.
DeliveryNote -> DeliveryNoteDetail -> PurchaseOrderDetail -> Product
DeliveryNote has the ReceivedDate
DeliveryNoteDetail has the ReceivedQty
I made the following trigger for handling single row updates, which works fine.
UPDATE Purchasing.Product
SET LastReceivedQty = i.ReceivedQty, LastReceivedDate = dn.ReceivedDate
FROM Purchasing.DeliveryNote dn INNER JOIN
Purchasing.DeliveryNoteDetail dnd ON dn.DeliveryNoteID = dnd.DeliveryNoteID INNER JOIN
inserted i ON dnd.DeliveryNoteDetailID = i.DeliveryNoteDetailID INNER JOIN
Purchasing.PurchaseOrderDetail pod ON dnd.PurchaseOrderDetailID = pod.PurchaseOrderDetailID INNER JOIN
Purchasing.Product p ON pod.VendorVendorProductID = p.VendorVendorProductID
Now I don't know how to handle multi-row situations when the same product is updated.
Since I cannot rely on the order that the updates are performed I need to somehow select the MAX(ReceivedDate).
Hi,
I have the following case:-
File a(transaction File)__File b(summary File)___File c(summary)
acctno___Value DB/CR_____Acctno DB,CR_______acctno DB,CR
1___________100db___________1______________________1
1___________300cr___________2______________________2
1___________600db
2___________700db
I want to update the account on table b and c from table a.
My current update is just for one table as follows:-
UPDATE amaster
SET cmdb = cmdb +
(SELECT SUM(transact.damt) AS Expr1
FROM transact
WHERE (acctno = amaster.acctno)
GROUP BY acctno),
cmcr = cmcr +
(SELECT SUM(transact.camt) AS Expr1
FROM transact
WHERE (acctno = amaster.acctno)
GROUP BY acctno)
FROM amaster INNER JOIN
transact ON transact.acctno = amaster.acctno
thanks
I'm new to adp w/ sql server but I have to use it on a project i'mdoing...One of the MUSTS for this project is the ability to update a 00 - 09text value with the appropriate text description from another table...Easy as pie in .mdb. Of course In the stored procedure it barks at meand tells me that an update query can only have one table.. ouch thathurts...I'm currently reading on the subject but this group has been veryhelpful in the past.....I found this link...http://www.sqlservercentral.com/col...stheeasyway.aspUnfortunetly I'm using MSDE not Enterprise so I don't think I can usethe query analyser.. But I tryed it in my Access ADP anywayit barked at me..I tried to go from this....SELECT dbo.LU_SEX.SEX_CODE, dbo.TEST.DEFECTS_DP1FROM dbo.TEST INNER JOINdbo.LU_SEX ON dbo.TEST.SEX_DP1 =dbo.LU_SEX.SEX_DECTo this...UPDATE dbo.TEST.SEX_DP1SET dbo.TEST.SEX_DP1 = dbo.LU_SEX.SEX_CODEFROM dbo.LU_SEX INNER JOINdbo.TEST ON dbo.LU_SEX.SEX_DEC =dbo.TEST.SEX_DP1Maybe I need a good book on this?Thanks,Charles
View 2 Replies View RelatedLet me set the scene:
I have an update trigger on a table. When a specific column is updated, I get the rowid from 'inserted' and then pass it via service broker to another database that will fire off a maintenance routine at a later time. This whole process seems to work fine if I update a single row at a time through Query Analyzer.
During testing (of the service broker part) I found that if in Query Analyzer I run an update that updates all of the records at once, then the trigger seems to fire only once for the entire process, therefore killing the rest of my process.
I would have thought that regardless of how a record was being updated the trigger would fire atomically for each row.
Any guidance on this would be MOST appreciated!
How to update column with multiline comments.
eg. I need to update Notification column in my table as below.
Exit Formalities Notification sent to:
Employee: LastName, FirstName
EmployeeEmail: EmployeeEmailAddress
how to do this
i have table of employee ,evry employee have a unique ID "empid"
empid VAL_OK
--------------------------
111 0
222 0
333 0
now insert multiple insert to my work_table shifts for all month for evry employee
like this
(this is work_table)
empid date val
--------------------------------------------------
111 01/02/2008 1
111 02/02/2008 2
...............
111 29/02/2008 5
--next employee
222 01/02/2008 1
222 02/02/2008 4
...............
222 29/02/2008 6
--next employee
333
--next employee
444
--next employee
555
-------------------------------------------------------------
now i need for evry OK insert (for all month) each employee
go to the TB_Employee
and update each employee once !!
from VAL_OK=0 to VAL_OK=1
like this
empid VAL_OK
--------------------------
111 1
222 1
333 1
----------------------
like this i know who is the employee have shift for all month and who NOT !
i think it like this
Code Snippet
Create trigger for_insert on tb_work
For insert
begin
if @@rowcount = 1
Update tb_employee
Set
val_ok= 1
else
/* when @@rowcount is greater than 1,
use a group by clause */
Update tb_employee
set
val_ok= 1
select empid from tb_work
group by tb_work.empid
End
TNX
hi need help
i have this stored procedure
the problem is that
i canot update like this not more than 20 - 30 rows
(i send it from a web page from check box)
it work but it limited rows for update not more than 20 - 30 rows
in one time
Code Snippet
SET ANSI_NULLS OFF
GO
SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE [sto_update_snha]
@id varchar(1000)
as
UPDATE Snha
SET fld5 = 3
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[id])+',',','+@id+',') > 0 AND (fld5 = 2)
TNX
spaces problem on multi update delete stored procedure
on the the insert i get it like this
58830803, 55329429, 308962604, 55696314, 309128726
as you see only the first empid=58830803 is without spaces
how to fix this
my code
Code Snippet
DECLARE @empid varchar(500)
set @empid ='58830803, 55329429, 308962604, 55696314, 309128726'
DELETE FROM [Table_1]
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[empid])+',',','+@empid+',') > 0
UPDATE [empList]
SET StartDate = CONVERT(DATETIME, '1900-01-01 00:00:00', 102), val_ok = 0
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[empid])+',',','+@empid+',') > 0
UPDATE [empList]
SET StartDate = CONVERT(DATETIME, '1900-01-01 00:00:00', 102), val_ok = 0
WHERE charindex(','+CONVERT(varchar,[empid])+',',','+@empid+',') > 0
TNX
We have an application that runs Jobs, each of which affect ## number of child objects (usually around 1M). When a thread gets to 5000 updated child objects it bulk inserts into a table called ActionLog with the child Id and JobId.
When the job is complete a sproc SUMs the children from the ActionLog table:
select sum(id) from ACTIONLOG where JOBID = @JobId;
It then updates the Jobs table AffectedObjectCount column with the sum(*) from above.
Instead of writing to the ActionLog table and calculating the SUM at the end I would like to do this 'real time'. After the bulk insert I would like to update the AffectedObjectCount column with the number of rows that were just bulk inserted. I tried this in the past and ran into major contention issues. There are usually 20 threads running a job so there exists a lot of potential for deadlocks.
Is there a recommended way to handle updating one column on one row from multiple threads? What is the best practice for a counter like this?
Disaster Recovery Options based on the following criteria.
--Currently running SQL 2012 standard edition
--We have 18000 databases (same schema across databases)- majority of databases are less than 2gb-- across 64 instances approximately
--Recovery needs to happen within 1 hour (Not sure that this is realistic
-- We are building a new data center and building dr from the ground up.
What I have looked into is:
1. Transactional Replication: Too Much Data Not viable
2. AlwaysOn Availability Groups (Need enterprise) Again too many databases and would have to upgrade all instances
3. Log Shipping is a viable option and the only one I can come up with that would work right now. Might be a management nightmare but with this many databases probably all options with be a nightmare.
More often than not, I typically don't touch DTC on clusters anymore; however on a project where the vendor states that it's required. So a couple things here.
1) Do you really need DTC per instance or one for all?
2) Should DTC be in its own resource group or within the instance's group?
2a) If in it's own resource group, how do you tie an instance to an outside resource group? tmMappingSet right?
Hello,I am trying to construct a query across 5 tables but primarily 3tables. Plan, Provider, ProviderLocation are the three primary tablesthe other tables are lookup tables for values the other tables.PlanID is the primary in Plan andPlanProviderProviderLocationLookups---------------------------------------------PlanIDProviderIDProviderIDLookupTypePlanNamePlanIDProviderStatusLookupKeyRegionIDLastName...LookupValue....FirstName...Given a PlanID I want all the Providers with a ProviderStatus = 0I can get the query to work just fine if there are records but what Iwant is if there are no records then I at least want one record withthe Plan information. Here is a sample of the Query:SELECT pln.PlanName, pln.PlanID, l3.LookupValue as Region,p.ProviderID, p.SSNEIN, pl.DisplayLocationOnPCP,pl.NoDisplayDate, pl.ProviderStatus, pl.InvalidDate,l1.LookupValue as ReasonMain, l2.LookupValue as ReasonSub,pl.InvalidDataFROM Plans plnINNER JOIN Lookups l3 ON l3.LookupType = 'REGN'AND pln.RegionID = l3.Lookupkeyleft outer JOIN Provider p ON pln.PlanID = p.PlanIDleft outer JOIN ProviderLocation pl ON p.ProviderID = pl.ProviderIDleft outer JOIN Lookups l1 ON l1.LookupType = 'PLRM'AND pl.ReasonMain = l1.LookupKeyleft outer JOIN Lookups l2 ON l2.LookupType = 'PLX1'AND pl.ReasonSub = l2.LookupkeyWHERE pln.PlanID = '123456789' AND pl.ProviderStatus = 0ORDER BY p.PlanID, p.ProviderID, pl.SiteLocationNumI know the problew the ProviderStatus on the Where clause is keepingany records from being returned but I'm not good enough at this toanother select.Can anybody give me some suggestions?ThanksDavid
View 5 Replies View RelatedI am new to Reporting Services and hope that what I am looking to do is within capabilities :-)
I have many identical schema databases residing on a number of data servers. These support individual clients accessing them via a web interface. What I need to be able to do is run reports across all of the databases. So the layout is:
Dataserver A
Database A1
Database A2
Database A3
Dataserver B
Database B1
Database B2
Dataserver C
Database C1
Database C2
Database C3
I would like to run a report that pulls table data from A1, A2, A3, B1, B2, C1, C2, C3
Now the actual number of servers is 7 and the number of databases is close to 1000. All servers are running SQL2005.
Is this something that Reporting Services is able to handle or do I need to look at some other solution?
Thanks,
Michael
Greetings,We are trying to set up a set of "Leading Practices" for ourdevelopers, as well as ourselves, and hope some gentle reader canrecommend some documentation in favor of what appears to be the rightposition to take.We do not allow third party applications to run on our SQL Servers. Wewant to include DTS Packages under the definition of third partyapplications, insisting instead that the developers save theirpackages as COM Formatted files into their source code control systemsand run them from their app servers. The devlopers would like to hearthis from someone besides ourselves.While strong recomendations to remove guest access to MSDB altogetherabound, I have been unable to find a straight forward discussion ofthe advantages of structured file storage and app server off load ofDTS packages.Can anyone suggest any articles, white papers, rants, etc attemptingto formulate a solution to the benefits of taking msdb away fromguest, with the advantages of running DTS from an App server orworkstation platform, with the packages protected in source codecontrol?Thank youJohn Pollinsjpollins @ eqt . com
View 2 Replies View RelatedWhat's up with this?
This takes like 0 secs to complete:
update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine.
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
View 8 Replies View RelatedThe Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute
strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText
If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then
objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1
objRS.update
End If
objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objConn.Execute strSQL1
W2003 + IIS6.0
Pls advice?
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
View 1 Replies View RelatedIs it possible to create a stored procedure that can be used on multiple dBs??
For instance, I want to create a stored procedure and use it on DB1 and DB2.
Right now, I can create a stored procedure in DB1 but only I can run it.
I want to run the stored procedures on DB2 that I created in DB1..
I hope this makes sense..
Any insight into the workings of SPs would be most appreciated...
I'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown.
The C# code:
SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString);
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID");
int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId;
cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath();
try
{
conn.Open();
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
}
catch(Exception ex)
{
throw ex;
}
finally
{
conn.Close();
}
The Stored Procedure:
ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL
(
@accomId int,
@path varchar(250)
)
AS
DECLARE
@enabled bit,
@oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */
SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation
WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1)
BEGIN
/* Now check if a path already exists */
SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL
BEGIN
/* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */
/* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */
INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
(oldpath, accom_id)
VALUES (@path,@accomId)
END
END
RETURN
I'm new to this forum.
This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it.
I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values.
Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank?
Thank you very much.
hi,friends
we show record from multiple table using single 'selectcommand'.
like....
---------
select *
from cust_detail,vend_detail
---------
i want to insert value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'insert command'.
is it possible?
give any idea or solution.
i want to update value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'update command'
i want to delete value in multiple database table(more than one) using singl 'delete command'
it is possible?
give any idea or solution.
it's urgent.
thanks in advance.
I do realize that his could be posted in a few spots but I think the answer is in the SQL.
I have a ASP.NET page, with a SqlDataSource, Text Box and Calendar Controls. I have the textbox and calendar controls eval'ed to the same sql data source DateTime Field. The text box is formatted eval to small time and the calendars eval has no formatting.
ex:
<asp:TextBox ID="START_TIME" Text='<%# Eval("EVENT_START","{0:t}") %>' runat=server Width=200></asp:TextBox>
I want to merge the two controls; one has the date the other has the time when I update the pages data to the SqlDataSource field EVENT_START. I've tried a couple of methods, but I would like some other opinions. As Sql server only supports date and time together I am storing the two together.
I could merge the two together in the code behind on the update button's event handler or merge the two during the update query using parameters.
Not that I could get an illegal date for the calendar control, but I could get garbage from the textfield time. So I still would have to do validation on the text field before the SQL server could do the update.
There's a few ways to go about this, so I was wondering if anyone else has figured out an elegant way to handle it.
wbochar
I want to update two tables in one page. So I created two FormView bound on two SqlDataSource controls, and I create a Update button on the bottom of page. And I writen some codes as below:
btnUpate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e){
sqlDataSource1.Update();
sqlDateSource2.Update();}
But, the records haven't updated.
In SqlDataSource2_Updating() function, I found all the parameters is null.
So, how to modify my code to do it.
Zhang
hi!
I have a big problem. If anyone can help.
I want to retrieve the last update time of database. Whenever any update or delete or insert happend to my database i want to store and retrieve that time.
I know one way is that i have to make a table that will store the datetime field and system trigger / trigger that can update this field record whenever any update insert or deletion occur in database.
But i don't know exactly how to do the coding for this?
Is there any other way to do this?
can DBCC help to retrieve this info?
Please advise me how to do this.
Thanks in advance.
Vaibhav
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?