Need Help With Rollover Update

Apr 24, 2008

Hello all,

I'm not even sure what you call this kind of update statement so I wasn't able to search the forums before making new post.

Say I have a table looks like this:

Name: Year:
Bob 2007
Sue 2007
Jane 2007
Ralph 2008
Sue 2008
Jane 2008


What I need to do is insert all the names from the most current year back into the table with the next year so that after the update the table would look like:

Name: Year:
Bob 2007
Sue 2007
Jane 2007
Ralph 2008
Sue 2008
Jane 2008
Ralph 2009
Sue 2009
Jane 2009

This seems simple enough but has me completely stumped. Thanks for your help!

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File Rollover In A Trace

Jan 18, 2007

Hi, i'm doing a script to do a trace, how can i include in my script the option of "Enable File Rollover". I only see it by properties but i would like to include it in a script.

Thanks for your help

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If we want to change something about a custom server side trace in SQL 2012, do we wipe the current trace with sp_trace_setstatus <trace_id>, 2 and then re-create it with the new definition? It looks like there's no way to modify it in place.

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declare @rc int
declare @TraceID int
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[code]...

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Jun 5, 2014

I have a process to rollover prior quarter data to new quarter in a table.

For example, i have a table with (col1, col2, year, qtr) with data like ( Note: col1 is identity(1,1) )

1,'today',2014,1
2,'tomorrow,2014,1
3,'friday',2014,1

Now when i run my process, above 3 records will be rolled over new quarter 2014 Q2 and the table will be like

1,'today',2014,1
2,'tomorrow,2014,1
3,'friday',2014,1
4,'today',2014,2
5,'tomorrow,2014,2
6,'friday',2014,2

Row 1 with identity 1 has rolled over to new quarter row 4 with identity 4 ( qtr fields are changed )
Row 2 with identity 2 has rolled over to new quarter row 5 with identity 5. Same with last row as well.

Here, i have another table called "ident_map" with columns like (old identity, new identity ) and during rollover i am supposed to load ident_map table with old and new identity. So after rollover is complete, ident_map table should look like

1,4
2,5
3,6

I know using output clause I can capture the new identity values. 4,5,6 in this case. But is there any way to capture both old identity and new identity during rollover so that i can load the ident_map table with old and new identity.

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Jan 2, 2008

What's up with this?

This takes like 0 secs to complete:

update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159

where enc_id in

('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',

'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',

'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')

but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:

update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159

where enc_id in

('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',

'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',

'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')


What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?

Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.

2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.

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I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000.  I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process.   Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue.  In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. 
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically).  When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense.  There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks 
 

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Feb 16, 2006

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Oct 20, 2006

The Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)

Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute
strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText
If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then
objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1
objRS.update
End If
objRS.Close

The .execute Method works fine

strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objConn.Execute strSQL1

W2003 + IIS6.0

Pls advice?

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Apr 16, 2015

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EXAMPLE:

CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,

[Code] ....

If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.

INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)

INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')

INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE

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Help Send An Personal Email From Database Mail On Row Update-stored PROCEDURE Multi Update

May 27, 2008

hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update
from stored PROCEDURE multi update
but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update
like send one after one email


i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update

how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email

i update like this


Code Snippet
:

DECLARE @id nvarchar(1000)
set @id= '16703, 16704, 16757, 16924, 17041, 17077, 17084, 17103, 17129, 17134, 17186, 17190, 17203, 17205, 17289, 17294, 17295, 17296, 17309, 17316, 17317, 17322, 17325, 17337, 17338, 17339, 17348, 17349, 17350, 17357, 17360, 17361, 17362, 17366, 17367, 17370, 17372, 17373, 17374, 17377, 17380, 17382, 17383, 17385, 17386, 17391, 17392, 17393, 17394, 17395, 17396, 17397, 17398, 17400, 17401, 17402, 17407, 17408, 17409, 17410, 17411, 17412, 17413, 17414, 17415, 17417, 17418, 17419, 17420, 17422, 17423, 17424, 17425, 17426, 17427, 17428, 17430, 17431, 17432, 17442, 17443, 17444, 17447, 17448, 17449, 17450, 17451'
UPDATE s SET fld5 = 2
FROM Snha s
JOIN dbo.udf_SplitList(@id, ',') split
ON split.value = s.na
WHERE fld5 = 3

now
how to send an EMAIL for evry ROW update but "personal email" to the employee



Code Snippet
DECLARE @xml NVARCHAR(MAX)DECLARE @body NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET @xml =CAST(( SELECT
FirstName AS 'td','',
LastName AS 'td','' ,
SET @body = @body + @xml +'</table></body></html>'
EXEC msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail
@recipients =''
@copy_recipients='www@iec.com',
@body = @body,
@body_format ='HTML',
@subject ='test',
@profile_name ='bob'
END
ELSE
print 'no email today'


TNX

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cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID");
int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId;
cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath();
try
{
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cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
}
catch(Exception ex)
{
throw ex;
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}
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(
@accomId int,
@path varchar(250)
)
AS
DECLARE
@enabled bit,
@oldpath varchar(250)

/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */
SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation
WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId

IF (@enabled = 1)
BEGIN
/* Now check if a path already exists */
SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId

IF @oldpath IS NULL
BEGIN
/* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */
/* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */
INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
(oldpath, accom_id)
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I'm new to this forum.
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hi,friends

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Jan 3, 2005

hi!

I have a big problem. If anyone can help.

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can DBCC help to retrieve this info?

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UPDATE AC
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thank you for your help
I've never done a trigger before

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