Sp_setapprole Alternatives?
Oct 23, 2006
Hi!fact: sp_setapprole can't be invoked from within a stored procedure
scenario: my users are validated in the database! I have a Users table that contains user related information, incl. passwords and profiles.
Actually users login through an applicational SP -- svc_login @username, @password -- and all users have the same permissions.
desired scenario:Have 1 app. role per user's role; once the user log in through the svc_login, I would like to change his appl. role based on his profile.
I already saw that i can't do this at DB side! Is there any known alternative to this kind of scenarios? Or must I rely on the front-end application and share the role password with it?Thanks in advancejmn
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May 15, 2007
Hi...
I have an application role in "Database A" which I am able to connect to without any problems..... until now:
Database A has a view which is in Database B. When I try to access this view, I get a permission denied error.
So, the obvious question is:
After I execute the sp_setapprole command, how can I access the view which reads from Database B?
Thanks,
Forch
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Jul 24, 2006
Hi All,
Is there any limitation for setting password to an approle (like it should be 8 character long, should not start with numbers) ?
If so, what are those limitations ?
Does the same is applicable for sp_setapprole which uses the same password ?
please confirm, for both SQL Server 2000 and 2005 versions.
thanks in advance,
Regards,
Kailai
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Oct 16, 2007
Does anyone know if this is a SQL Native Client bug? I've read a previous thread (posted back on Jan. 18th, 2007) about this error, but there are no replies. I am getting this error when I issue the sp_setapprole command using sqlexecdirect() ODBC api call. Is there any way to work around this? Or is there a fix to the SQL Native Client? The error 15002 message text states "The procedure sys.sp_setapprole cannot be executed within a transaction". This is on a new connection so there should be no transactions active at the time. Thanks in advance for any info anyone can provide on this.
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Jul 23, 2005
Hi,I have an SQL assignment to do and at my school we use SQL *Plus therehowever I don't have Oracle at home, where I would like to do the work ,so Iwas wondering whats the easiest way to get an SQL environment up so I cancode in that then just paste it into SQL *Plus later.I don't really want to install Oracle on my home pc and I was wondering ifthere are other IDE's for SQl that would fit my need for this.I discovered an instant SQL *Plus client that sounded really promising butwhen i unpacked it, it was just a load of dll's so I think it wasn't what Ithought it was.So does anyone know of anything that might be able to help me out here?Any advice much appreciated!Thanks--Ant
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Nov 7, 2000
Is using some variation of (i forget which... Charindex / Patindex) operator better than using a query with a like operator.
Our app requires wildcard searching. So what is the absolute best way to get the searches done fast???
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Apr 3, 2004
Hi all
I have often come across discussions on this forum saying that CURSORs are expensive in time (processing power?).
Having used CURSORs to processing a mere 2000+ record (not much at all) which took a fair while to complete, I now realize why you guys are saying CURSORs are expensive.
But is there alternatives to using CURSORs in the situation where I try to process every records returned by a particular query?
Say for example, i want to update columns that comes from different tables for every record that is returned by a SELECT JOIN query. there is no way that i can do that with a single UPDATE statement cause i can't do JOIN with UPDATE query.
All comments welcome
James :)
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Sep 30, 2005
Hi all
Hope someone in here can help me solve a problem im having with a view.
I'm tring to build a view that show me the sales history for any given machine in a Machine Database (MDB). Each machine is handled as a seperate "project".
My query works fine as long as a machine has only been sold once ... but as soon as the machine is being sold as used to another customer the view fails because of my "subqueries" return more then one value.
(Error message: Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.)
I hope someone in here has a ideer on how to get the information I need out - because my CASE statements clearly dosn't do the trick.
--------------------------------------------------------
SELECT crm5.contact.name AS Customer,
crm5.pmembtype.name AS Ownership,
crm5.pv_salespress.InstallationDate AS [Install Date],
CASE
WHEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr1_Winner FROM crm5.pv_salespress) = 1 THEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr1_Used FROM crm5.pv_salespress)
WHEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr2_Winner FROM crm5.pv_salespress) = 1 THEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr2_Used FROM crm5.pv_salespress)
WHEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr3_Winner FROM crm5.pv_salespress) = 1 THEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr3_Used FROM crm5.pv_salespress)
ELSE (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.Used FROM crm5.pv_salespress)
END AS Used,
CASE
WHEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr1_Winner FROM crm5.pv_salespress) = 1 THEN (SELECT crm5.comptr.name FROM crm5.comptr WHERE crm5.comptr.comptr_id = crm5.pv_salespress.comptr1_seller)
WHEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr2_Winner FROM crm5.pv_salespress) = 1 THEN (SELECT crm5.comptr.name FROM crm5.comptr WHERE crm5.comptr.comptr_id = crm5.pv_salespress.comptr2_seller)
WHEN (SELECT crm5.pv_salespress.comptr3_Winner FROM crm5.pv_salespress) = 1 THEN (SELECT crm5.comptr.name FROM crm5.comptr WHERE crm5.comptr.comptr_id = crm5.pv_salespress.comptr3_seller)
ELSE (SELECT crm5.comptr.name FROM crm5.comptr WHERE crm5.comptr.comptr_id = 35)
END AS [Installed By],
crm5.pv_salespress.RemovalDate AS [Removal Date],
crm5.pv_salespress.RemovalReason AS Reason,
crm5.pv_salespress.ActionBy AS [Removed By],
crm5.project.project_id,
crm5.sale.sale_id
FROM crm5.contact INNER JOIN
crm5.sale INNER JOIN
crm5.project INNER JOIN
crm5.projectmember ON crm5.project.project_id = crm5.projectmember.project_id INNER JOIN
crm5.pmembtype ON crm5.projectmember.mtype_idx = crm5.pmembtype.PMembType_id INNER JOIN
crm5.projstatus ON crm5.project.status_idx = crm5.projstatus.ProjStatus_id ON crm5.sale.project_id = crm5.project.project_id ON
crm5.contact.contact_id = crm5.projectmember.contact_id RIGHT OUTER JOIN
crm5.pv_salespress ON crm5.sale.sale_id = crm5.pv_salespress.Sale_idx
----------------------
Thanks in advance
Niels
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Oct 10, 2007
Hi
I got a SQL Server with Language = €śGerman€? and Collation = €śLatin1_General_CI_AS€?.
My application has a form with language = €śEnglisch€?. This application is calling an stored procedure, that has a datetime parameter.
db.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@Test", DbType.DateTime, Test);
This stored procedure is not able to accept the value from the parameter, because the application is passing it, in the format ymd and sql server is specting it in ydm.
I tried to set the dateformat = ymd in the store procedure, thing that did not work. I have to set it before exec my-stored procedure. But I cant from my application.
How can I solve this?
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Mar 8, 2007
I am trying to do this in a stored procedure and I am lacking permissions. Not sure if they will allow me permission so is there an alternative? I want to do it in a procedure and prefer not to use DTS.
BULK INSERT tablename
FROM 'C:filename.txt'
WITH
(
ROWTERMINATOR = ' '
)
ddave
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Feb 5, 2008
Hi there,
I'm fairly new to SSIS but essentially I would like to create the following:
Table Structure:
===========
Code Name
ABC Abc Industries
..... .......
XYZ Xyz Industries
Read an excel file into the database (I have this working)
Loop through the result set and concatinate the [Code] to a variable
Every 200 rows I would like to use the varible that contains 200 codes e.g. Myvar = ABC,ABC1,ABB1,ABB2...... into another task, the variable would be reset after the task has been complete for the next 200 rows
I have no idea how I can perform the kind of paging that I am after, I know the Foreach control loops through each record and I could use Scriptmain to attach to the variable but I'm not sure how to perform an additional task every 200.
Thanks in advance
Regards Rob
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Feb 19, 2008
Are there other ways to change the database ?
For instance command stringdatabasename ?
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Apr 18, 2007
Hi,
Can anyone help me with third party tools that perform the same way as SQL Servers Merge replication.
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Dec 23, 2004
I have 3 SQL databases: A, B and C. A and B are branch databases while C is the central (HQ) database. A & B will be constantly updated while C will updated occasionally and usually will be used for reporting/data browsing. Even though A & B are from different branch, they do have share some data records.
Every day, I will have to sync A & B's new/updated data to C and C to A/B. I know I can use Replication but I can't. You see, A & B are located in our own branch server while C was hosted on a third-party server. The webserver provider for C would not allow me to do any Replication on C.
What other alternatives that I can use to synchronise all 3?
DTS? XML transfer? It looks as if I have no choice but to write my own sync scripts? :((
Anyone has encountered similar situations? Any recommended SQL Tool programs?
Please help. I'm at a loss of what Im going to do.
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Apr 17, 2007
Hello,
I would like to know what alternatives are avaliable to SQL Server Merge Replication. I am also looking for Third Party Tools. Can anyone name a few for me.
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Feb 8, 2008
Hello all, I'm new to SSIS and this forum, and this is my first post.
We're migrating a 2000 DTS ETL process to 2005 SSIS. We really like the enhanced functionality of SSIS thus far.
One problem we have with our 2000 process is that runs at 1:00am each morning. The scheduling is done via a distributed scheduling tool called Maestro. Our process pulls data from a mainframe-based DB2 OLTP and reformats it into SQL Server reporting tables. We have nightly mainframe batch processing that updates the DB2 tables, and we need those updates on a nightly basis.
The mainframe batch process starts at 8:00pm each evening. It finishes normally by 1:00am 90% of the time, but it is 20+ years old, and has its share of problems, especially during month-end. The problems can't be resolved until the next business day in some cases.
We'd like to elegantly connect the two processes somehow so the SSIS ETL process kicks off when the mainframe batch process finishes. I intentionally didn't use the word 'trigger' up until this point.
It would not be a problem to modify the mainframe batch process to insert or update a DB2 table that SSIS has access to, but I don't think we can get the mainframe batch process to update SQL Server 2005 tables...?
Any advice would be greatly appreciated--TIA!
John
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Oct 30, 2007
Hello.
I have a query which spends a lot of time calculating my CASE WHEN -statements.
My query looks like this
SELECT TOP 250
UserId,
CASE WHEN
(someCol*0.4+someOtherCol*0.3) > 99 THEN 99
ELSE
(someCol*0.4+someOtherCol*0.3)
END
FROM
(
SELECT
UserId,
CASE WHEN @myparam > 50 THEN
CASE WHEN Col5+@myincrease > 99 THEN 99 ELSE Col5+@myincrease END
ELSE
CASE WHEN Col6+@myincrease > 99 THEN 99 ELSE Col6+@myincrease ENDEND as someCol,
CASE WHEN Col8+@myincrease3 > 99 THEN 99 ELSE Col8+@myincrease3 END as SomeOtherCol
FROM
SomeTable
) t1
This is just a little bit of the full query. I cannot write the whole query since it contains alot of different views and calculations, but I have traced it down to that all these case when-statements is taking a lot of time to do. So I hope that this example will be enough for you to understand my problem.
I know about some tricks that can replace a CASE WHEN, for example using COALESCE or BETWEEN but that does not seem to work in my case.
Any suggestions?
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Dec 11, 2007
I've googled everything about GUID, seems there is no good thing to say about it. Here's my scenario, a purchase order (PO) application:
We want to have a centralized database with remote sites connected to it
Some of the sites are without connection, they will have their own servers with scheduled replication to the centralized database.
The design is something like this:
Each PO will have many revisions
Each revision will have many PO line items
Each PO line item will have many Delivery Schedules
In the past i used int IDENTITY as transaction ID in revision and line item tables.
transaction ID in revision table is FK to line item table, and transaction ID line item table is FK to Delivery Schedules table.
This work well in standalone database.
Now that we need to merge replicates, int IDENTITY produced in remote DB will conflict with IDENTITY produced in central DB.
I'm thinking of using GUID to replace int IDENTITY.
Question:
How bad is my decision?
Can't GUID size indexing problem be solved with partitioning?
Can you suggest other alternatives to GUID, based on the above scenario?
Thanks in advance
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Jan 11, 2006
Hello everybody,
I'm new using ASP 2.0, I was trying to find out how do i tell a SqlDataSource the parameters it will be using for the select query. I was looking at the Configure Data Source wizard and when I press the where botton to create the parameters, I do not know how two of the available Source selections work which are: (Query String, and Session). What I want to understand is how do I pass the parameter value during the form load like I used to do with ASP 1.1.
I used to write: during the pageload event:
me.dataAdapter.selectparameter("@param").value = [myVar]
me.dataAdapter.fill(Me.ds)
I tried to do something like this for the SqlDataSource but didnt work.
can anyone tell me how can I acomplish this?
thanks a lot.
Ed.
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Apr 19, 2004
I am having some difficulty writing a relatively basic query. The objective is to retrieve the new stories (headlines) for the past 3 days from the database. Since each headline can be assigned multiple categories (topics) the query returns a row for every headline assignment. I can't use the 'Group By' expression because one of the columns is nText.
So basically if there is an article written yesterday, "I Love Cats" that gets assigned both topics 'CATS' and 'PETS' I only it returned with the first topic assigned... 'CATS'. Here is a little image of the three tables being called:
http://64.225.154.232/temp_dbDiagram.gif
I don't think that this query is too difficult, but I'm just getting my feet wet with writing queries that are more than select * from whatever. Any insight or recommendations are greatly appreciated.
SELECT headline.HEADLINE_ID, headline.HEADLINE_TITLE, headline.HEADLINE_DATE, headline.HEADLINE_THUMBNAIL,
topic.TOPIC_NAME, topic.TOPIC_URL
FROM tbl_CCF_Headlines headline INNER JOIN
tbl_CCF_Headlines_Topics ON headline.HEADLINE_ID = tbl_CCF_Headlines_Topics.HEADLINE_ID INNER JOIN
tbl_CCF_Topics topic ON tbl_CCF_Headlines_Topics.TOPIC_ID = topic.TOPIC_ID
WHERE (headline.HEADLINE_DATE IN
(SELECT TOP 3 HEADLINE_DATE
FROM tbl_CCF_HEADLINES
GROUP BY HEADLINE_DATE
ORDER BY HEADLINE_DATE DESC))
ORDER BY headline.HEADLINE_DATE DESC
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May 8, 2008
Hopefully someone can suggest a better solution than what I'm currently hobbling along with.Basically, I've got a table that has rows inserted (with a timestamp) whenever there is a change to one of the values of a particular "item". So, what I want is to return a dataset of the latest value for each category, for each particular item. I'm guessing that what I'm trying to acheive is doable in some elegant and performant fashion. Something maybe involving a ROLLUP or WITH CUBE or something amazingly obvious. But for the time being, I've got a less-elegant query that returns the correct data. It just uses subqueries.Here's the T-SQL to run my scenario: DECLARE @actionHistoryTable TABLE ( itemID int, actionType int, actionValue nvarchar(50) NULL, actionTime datetime )INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1000, 1, 'fork', '1/1/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1000, 2, '27', '1/2/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1000, 3, '200', '1/12/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1000, 2, '1', '1/1/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1000, 3, '204', '1/1/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1000, 1, 'ball', '1/3/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1026, 2, '20', '1/10/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1026, 2, NULL, '1/5/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1026, 1, 'hotdog', '1/6/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1026, 3, '2511', '1/8/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1026, 3, '375', '1/7/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1026, 1, 'mustard', '1/5/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1013, 1, 'rock', '1/2/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1013, 1, 'paper', '1/21/2008')INSERT @actionHistoryTable VALUES( 1013, 3, '10', '1/20/2008') -- JUST DISPLAY THE RAW TABLE FOR THIS EXAMPLESELECT * FROM @actionHistoryTable -- THIS RETURNS THE RESULTS I'M WANTING, IT ROLLS-UP THE LATEST VALUE FOR EACH ACTION_TYPE FOR EACH ITEMIDSELECT aht.itemID ,( SELECT TOP 1 aht2.actionValue FROM @actionHistoryTable aht2 WHERE aht.itemID = aht2.itemID AND aht2.actionType = '1' ORDER BY aht2.actionTime DESC ) as 'latest type 1 value' ,( SELECT TOP 1 aht2.actionValue FROM @actionHistoryTable aht2 WHERE aht.itemID = aht2.itemID AND aht2.actionType = '2' ORDER BY aht2.actionTime DESC ) as 'latest type 2 value' ,( SELECT TOP 1 aht2.actionValue FROM @actionHistoryTable aht2 WHERE aht.itemID = aht2.itemID AND aht2.actionType = '3' ORDER BY aht2.actionTime DESC ) as 'latest type 3 value'FROM @actionHistoryTable ahtGROUP BY aht.itemID Is there a better way?-Steve
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