I have a stored proc that inserts records into a table, gets the identity, and uses that identity on a .net webpage. The page retrieves that identity key and processes some stuff on the page.
Everything was working fine until I tried to enable sql mail with triggers. I wanted to double-check some stuff, so I requested an sql email be sent whenever an insert occurs on the table above. Here's what I think is happening --- please correct and/or help me out with a work around?
I use the stored proc to insert a record.
I select the @@identity.
The trigger fires but uses select to retrieve the latest insert - thereby replacing the @@identity number returned to the page?
If this is true, could I do something like the following in the original stored proc? Is this a good idea or bad idea?
BEGIN
Declare @myID as int, @myBody1 as varChar(200)
Set @myID=0
INSERT INTO table (fields) VALUES (@PID, more stuff);
Set @myID = SELECT @@IDENTITY As [Identity];
If @myID<>0
Begin
Set @body1='<br />pid=' + more stuff.....
Exec msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail
@profile_name='profileName',
@recipients='email@email.com',
@subject='Temp History Insert',
@body=@body1,
@body_format= 'HTML' ;
End
END
I have a stored proc that inserts records into a table, gets the identity, and uses that identity on a .net webpage. The page retrieves that identity key and processes some stuff on the page.
Everything was working fine until I tried to enable sql mail with triggers. I wanted to double-check some stuff, so I requested an sql email be sent whenever an insert occurs on the table above. Here's what I think is happening --- please correct and/or help me out with a work around?
I use the stored proc to insert a record. I select the @@identity. The trigger fires but uses select to retrieve the latest insert - thereby replacing the @@identity number returned to the page?
If this is true, could I do something like the following in the original stored proc? Is this a good idea or bad idea?
BEGIN Declare @myID as int, @myBody1 as varChar(200) Set @myID=0 INSERT INTO table (fields) VALUES (@PID, more stuff); Set @myID = SELECT @@IDENTITY As [Identity]; If @myID<>0 Begin Set @body1='<br />pid=' + more stuff..... Exec msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail @profile_name='profileName', @recipients='email@email.com', @subject='Temp History Insert', @body=@body1, @body_format= 'HTML' ; End END
I'm stumped on this trigger error and I'm hoping someone can help. Here's the background:
BACKGROUND Running SQLServer2005 on WinServer 2003 RC2. We use a SQL-based business application that has it's own alert system that uses database mail sucessfully, meaning the built-in emailing functions of the application work and can communicate with the database mail profile and send mail without error.
PROBLEM I'm trying to write a trigger that will automatically send out an email alert after certain actions are performed in the business application. When I enable the trigger and it tries to run it fails with the following error:
SQLDBCode: 229Alerts error: SQLSTATE = 4200Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL ServerEXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_send_dbmail', database 'msdb', schema 'dbo'...
TROUBLESHOOTING I've seen several articles about DatabaseMailUserRole permissions and have made sure that all users, admin and even guest (for testing) are members of this role. Other than that our setup is pretty vanilla so I'm not sure what else to do.
We only have one large dbase for the app and the fact that the internal emailing fuction works makes me think that the permissions for the msdb are already correct (although I could be wrong)
This problem is driving me crazy so I thank you in advance for any suggestions!
I want to be able to create a trigger that updates table 2 when a row is inserted into table 1. However I��m not sure how to increment the ID in table 2 or to update only the row that has been inserted.
I want to be able to create a trigger so that when a row is inserted into table A by a specific user then the ID will appear in table B. Is it possible to find out the login id of the user inserting a row?
I believe the trigger should look something like this:
create trigger test_trigger on a for insert as insert into b(ID)
This problem is being seen on SQL 2005 SP2 + cumulative update 4
I am currently successfully using the output clause of an insert statement to return the identity values for inserted rows into a table variable
I now need to add an "instead of insert" trigger to the table that is the subject of the insert.
As soon as I add the "instead of insert" trigger, the output clause on the insert statement does not return any data - although the insert completes successfully. As a result I am not able to obtain the identities of the inserted rows
Note that @@identity would return the correct value in the test repro below - but this is not a viable option as the table in question will be merge replicated and @@identity will return the identity value of a replication metadata table rather than the identity of the row inserted into my_table
Note also that in the test repro, the "instead of insert" trigger actually does nothing apart from the default insert, but the real world trigger has additional code.
To run the repro below - select each of the sections below in turn and execute them 1) Create the table 2) Create the trigger 3) Do the insert - note that table variable contains a row with column value zero - it should contain the @@identity value 4) Drop the trigger 5) Re-run the insert from 3) - note that table variable is now correctly populated with the @@identity value in the row
I need the behaviour to be correct when the trigger is present
GO /************************************************ 2) - Create the trigger ************************************************/ CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[trig_my_table__instead_insert] ON [dbo].[my_table] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN
INSERT INTO my_table ( forename, surname) SELECT forename, surname FROM inserted
END
/************************************************ 3) - Do the insert ************************************************/
INSERT INTO my_table ( forename , surname ) OUTPUT inserted.my_table_id INTO @my_insert VALUES( @forename , @surname )
select @@identity -- expect this value in @my_insert table select * from @my_insert -- OK value without trigger - zero with trigger
/************************************************ 4) - Drop the trigger ************************************************/
drop trigger [dbo].[trig_my_table__instead_insert] go
/************************************************ 5) - Re-run insert from 3) ************************************************/ -- @my_insert now contains row expected with identity of inserted row -- i.e. OK
Is it possible to embed a image datatype into a EMail message using sp_Send_DBMail?
For example, my query would select a saved print screen image held in a SQL table as datatype image. I would prefer not to attach this image but rather have it print in the message section.
Hi, I am using SQL Server 2005 and need to mail. I used sp_send_dbmail for mailing but I am able send to one @recipeint and one @copy_recipient. How can I mail to many email addresses and/or group?
I'd like to have some feedback from the experts on SQL 2005.
The situations is the following.
I have an application .net/SQL server 2000 that send notification mails using the SQL mail feature. It works fine for years.
Sooner or later SQL 2000 will be out of service, so I decide to move my database to SQL 2005.
When I'm trying to put in production with my web hosting provider www.webhost4life.com, they said that are not supporting SQL DBMAIL on any SQL 2005 32/64 bits because the extra workload will slow down SQL 2005 performance.
My question is if somebody has experience of this situation in other installations or maybe is that provider who has some problems tuning the SQL servers.
We are having trouble configuring SQL Server 2005 to use MX records. Basically, we want to use DBmail to utilize multiple mail relays. The three mail relays are contained within internal DNS MX records.
smtphost.xxx.com. IN MX 10 mailhost1.xxx.com. smtphost.xxx.com. IN MX 10 mailhost2.xxx.com. smtphost.xxx.com. IN MX 10 mailhost3.xxx.com.
It doesn't seem to like using MX records? Any ideas? Thanks KraftR Tim.Kraft@Dowjones.com
I am using DBMail to send an email notification at the completion of service broker process and have been getting the following security error:
Msg 229, Level 14, State 5, Procedure sp_send_dbmail, Line 1
EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_send_dbmail', database 'msdb', schema 'dbo'.
I have given the userID used to run the Service Broker, databasemailuserrole in msdb as per instruction in the msdb. I have also given it execute permission on the sp_send_dbmail but keep getting the error. The service broker is run using a sql login and the dbmail profile is set as public profile. Any suggestions would be much appreciated.
Hi! I try to use Service Broker and DBMail together, but have some trouble with that. I need to create the queue with activation. And the stored procedure activated on this queue must send e-mail using DBmail. It's looks simple, but it doesn't work. There is my script to create objects, but don't forget create dbmail profile before use it. PS And replace my email by yours
I would like to replace mymail@mail.com by mypdl@mail.com , where mypdl is basically a people distribution list with 2 emails: my own email and my coworker and fellow DBA.
IF EXISTS ( SELECT TOP 1 [PercentUsed] FROM [BackupSize] WHERE PercentUsed>=70 AND [drivename]='D:' -- D is the internal drive ORDER BY [MetricDate] DESC
[Code] ...
But I think this won't work by design. Maybe I need to create an operator?
I am attempting to use dbmail from an application that logs in to my database using an application role. Since the application role does not exist outside the database, I created an spSendEmail in the database with "execute as login='mailagent'" in it: I set the database to trustworthy, created a 'mailagent' account and added it to the msdb database with the databasemailuser role rights.
Email works just fine on the server when I use the execute as login='mailagent' to fire off the msdb..sp_send_dbmail. But from the .NET application, I get the error: "Cannot execute as the server principal because the principal 'mailagent' does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission." When I run my spSendEmail stored procedure from the calling database, I get the same error.
I would like to have the value of a field to be set the return value of System.Web.Security.Membership.GeneratePassword(12,4) every time a a row is inserted. Can you guide with this? Do you have some similar sample code? Thank you very much
I would like to have the value of a field to be set the return value of System.Web.Security.Membership.GeneratePassword(12,4) every time a a row is inserted. Can you guide with this? Do you have some similar sample code? Thank you very much
I have to create a insert trigger that calls a stored procedure usp_a I need to pass two parameters to this stored procedure, value coming from the row inserted... What is the syntax? Any help will be appreciated?
Replication is not an option for me so I am trying to creat a trigger that will basically copy any new record to another database. I am using an on insert trigger and I get all records from the table inserted to the new db not just the new record.
I am trying to write a pre-insert trigger. I want a row to be deleted first and then have the new row inserted. The end result is an insert/update statement. If anyone knows how to do this or has a better way, let me know, Please.
I am trying to write an insert trigger for the following problem. I have a table that contains a field (amount) that contains currency amount. Each row could be a record from a transaction in a different country. I would like each record to be converted into U.S. currency as it is inserted. So I created an other table that contains that exchange rate. How can I create a trigger that does this?
Tax Detail Table Exchange Table
Account# int Country char Description char ExchangeRate Money Amount money Country char
I am working with MSS 6.5. Any and all help will be greatly appreciated.
Really simple question - I have the following trigger for the INSERT event for Tbl_B:
CREATE TRIGGER calc_total ON [dbo].[Tbl_B] FOR INSERT AS
DECLARE @VATRate AS decimal(19,2) SET @VATRate = ( SELECT Val FROM Tbl_Numeric_Refs WHERE Ref = 'VATRate' )
UPDATE Tbl_B SET [Total] = ((@VATRate / 100) * [PriceA]) + [PriceA], [VATRate] = @VATRateHow can I restrict the UPDATE within the trigger to the record(s) being INSERTed? Or am I over-complicating things, and should use a simple UDF for this instead?
Is it possible to pick up the value that is being inserted within the scope of a trigger? For example, if I were to run the following
INSERT INTO people (firstname, lastname) VALUES ('George', 'V')
Would it be possible to access these values in a trigger before they are inserted?
CREATE TRIGGER trigger1 ON people FOR INSERT AS IF EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM table1 WHERE firstname = <the value being inserted>) BEGIN Print '1' END ELSE BEGIN Print '2' END GO
Rightio - this is probably a simple question for you SQL afficionados.I have written a trigger to update a master table with a CreateDate field. Simple enough I thought but it updates this field when the existing record is edited as well - not so good.This is how it looks like:CREATE TRIGGER CreateDateON MasterFOR UPDATE ASDECLARE@idMaster intSELECT @idMaster = idMaster from Insertedupdate Masterset CreatedDate = getdate()where idMaster = @idMasterGOWell I know I can write an IF statement that will basically say if the field is not null then only update - fair enough - but is there a simpler way to do this? Is there a way I need to write my CREATE TRIGGER statement that ONLY makes it run when it is a NEW INSERT ONLY?THANKS!
So... dear friends I want to insert values to a table without firing the foreign key Constraint. I think one way is to insert values into the parent table first and then perform the initial insert. Is this possible with an INSTEAD OF INSERT Trigger or another way? If yes can you make an example? I want to check for dublicate values in the parent table too!! Thanx!
I have an EMPLOYEE table and DEPARTMENT table, i have to create one to many relationship where one employee can be in many departments, please guide me
