Hi when I run this sql script: I get an error message
update server.dbname.DBO.ap_payment
set pay_flag = -2 -- means were not updated in vi approved table
where ISNUMERIC(venid)<>1
and pay_flag =0
I am not sure what this means, can anyone help me. thanks
Server: Msg 7306, Level 16, State 2, Line 1
Could not open table '"CESI"."DBO"."ap_payment"' from OLE DB provider 'SQLOLEDB'. The provider could not support a row lookup position. The provider indicates that conflicts occurred with other properties or requirements.
[OLE/DB provider returned message: Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done.]
can anyone tell me if they know of a way to automate the update process from development servers to live server, with little interference from an administrator
I have a development team that are constantly updating their databases along with their ASP code, and want to publish changes an a weekly basis. They have asked me for a way to take their new structures, tables, procedures etc, and copy them to the live servers, but NOT to interfere with existing customer data.
Funny I know – and I hate the idea btw :(
Any references, contacts, 3rd party tool recommendations welcome,
Does anyone have the general syntax for updating one database on one server with info from another database on a different server? Both are SQL Server 7.0.
Hi, I'm trying to write an update query across two servers but getting getting two errors. The first server is called: blatweb2 The second server is called: blbr-teamserv This is the query I'm trying to use:1 update blatweb2.dbo.knousefoods.products a 2 Set LuckyLeafPieFillingSort = 3 (Select LuckyLeafPieFillingSort from blbr-teamserv.dbo.knouse.products b where a.productname = b.productname) I'm getting the following errors. Do you know what could be wrong? ThanksMsg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 1Incorrect syntax near 'a'.Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 3Incorrect syntax near '-'.
This is my first time posting here so thanks for you assistance in advance.
I have a project I am working on where I need to use database triggers to upon update update a table on another SQL server. Below is how it would work.
Server A (SQL 2000) Table A is updated (execute trigger to update Server B, Table B)
Server B (SQL 2005) Table B (Tabled updated by SQL 2000, server).
I don't know if this can be done using the SQL server technology itself or how I would do it. Is a .NET or other program service have to be used in this scenario?
Hi!I have a stored procedure that takes 22 minutes to run in oneenvironment, that only takes 1 sec or so to run in anotherenvironment. Here is the exact situation:Database 1 on Server 1 vs. Database 2 on Server 2 - the data isexactly the same, and the tables and index structures are exactly thesame. Implicit transactions are turned off on both databases.Stored procedure:BEGIN TRANSACTION--step 1TRUNCATE myTable--step 2INSERT INTO myTable VALUES ('myValues')--step 3UPDATE aSET rating=AVG(someValues)FROM myTable aJOIN otherTable bON a.column1=b.column1GROUP BY someColumnsCOMMIT TRANSACTIONThe update statement on the problem server is the only step that takesforever. While it is running, I don't see anything that could beblocking the statement. I used the following queries to determine ifthere was another process blocking it:select spid AS Blocked, blocked AS Blocking, waittime, cmd, substring(nt_username, 1, 15), dbid, physical_io,substring(hostname, 1, 15), program_name, lastwaittype, waitresource,memusagefrom master.dbo.sysprocesses where blocked <0order by waittime descselect dbid, name from sysdatabases where dbid in (select dbid frommaster.dbo.sysprocesses where blocked <0)select spid AS BlockingFromAbove, blocked AS TrueBlockingQuery,waittime, cmd, substring (nt_username, 1, 15), dbid, physical_io,substring(hostname, 1, 15), program_name, lastwaittype, waitresource,memusagefrom master.dbo.sysprocesses where spid in (select blocked frommaster.dbo.sysprocesses where blocked <0)order by waittime descWhen I change the UPDATE statement to a SELECT, it still takes longerthan it does on the test server (1 min 35 sec vs. severalmilliseconds).What could be causing the UPDATE to take forever on one server/database, and run without a problem on another?I am at a loss! Any help would be greatly appreciated.
When i run above script, it prompt me an error message; "Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server The requested operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "IBMDA400" for linked server "TESTDB2" does not support the required transaction interface."
If i run it without "begintrans" and "committrans", it update the data successfully.
I have 2 SQL server 2000 machines, I need to take a table from each one and combine them together based on a date time stamp. The first machine has a database that records information based on an event it is given a timestamp the value of variable is stored and a few other fields are stored in Table A. The second machine Table B has test data entered in a lab scenario. This is a manufacturing facility so the Table A data is recorded by means of a third party software. Whenever a sample is taken in the plant the event for Table A is triggered and recorded in the table. The test data may be entered on that sample in Table B several hours later the lab technician records the time that the sample was taken in Table B but it is not exact to match with the timestamp in Table A. I need to combine each of these tables into a new SQL server 2005 database on a new machine. After combining the tables which I am assuming I can based on a query that looks at the timestamp on both Tables A & B and match the rows up based on the closest timestamp. I need to continuously update these tables with the new data as it comes in. I havent worked with SQL for a couple of years and have looked at several ways to complete this task but havent had much luck. I have researched linked servers, SSIS, etc Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.  Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
Hello. I need to copy all of the rows in a table from a database on one server, to another existing table of the same name in a different database on a different server. I'm trying to use a SELECT INTO statement. Any idea how to do this?I've tried SELECT * INTO DestinationServer.dbo.DestinationDB.DestinationTableFROM SourceTable AS SourceTable_1 But this doesn't work, saying there are too many prefixes. Any idea how to do this?
I periodically transfer large databases across servers and have had problems with tables on the target being empty (to rule out errant deletes by other developers). I'd like a way to do a table by table row count comparison between the two servers, similar to the way sp_compare_db (found here at Swynk) does on a single server. Even a method of referencing tables by including the server name would help.
I have two servers S1 and S2. Inmediately after new data on S1 is available I want to perform some actions on S2.
I can use a trigger on S1, but if S2 is down the transaction on S1 will be lost. I could use database replication but I only need one single table in S1 to report changes to S2
I am making a ASP.NET web application that involves 2 SQL Server(A & B). I created a view in SQL server A pointing to the table in SQL Server B. I found out my application will run REALLY slow when accessing such a view. so I try to avoid using them. But in the case of 2 table joining from 2 different SQL Servers, I have no choice. Can anyone help me with this? Thanks!
I tried with success to replicate a table_test_repl from my local server to an other server.
I used only one table for testing.
After that, i can't drop the 2 tables a_test_repl (on my local server and the other : I've got a message 'cannot drop the table because it is published for replication'
What can I do? I need absolutely to drop these tables to keep a clean model and I can't drop the database and try again.
The boss has decided that the data from a table we have on one database (containing daily data) needs to be copied to a "history" table on a different database, on a different server.
The transfer will probably be done with a scheduled stored procedure, and all columns will be transferred EXCEPT for two columns in the source table, which are not present in the destination table. This means instead of an "INSERT Dest SELECT * FROM Source" I have to do an "INSERT Dest SELECT yada,yada,yada... FROM Source" in order to disregard the columns we don't care about. NO problem.
I was thinking (you should smell trouble - and sawdust burning at this point) that this leaves us open to a punch below the belt later when a new column is added to the Source table, since we are using a definitive list of columns to move rather than a *, and the new column could be added without the otherwise system-generated, *-sponsored "gentle reminder" that it also needs to be added to the Dest table. I'm not as convinced as The Boss that "Oh, I'm sure we'll remember to add it to the history table when that happens" :lol:
So, long story shorter (nah...too late for that) - I figure I can write a check at each day's historical transfer on the count of columns in one table verses the other, and send an email or fail the job if the count doesn't make sense.
For example, if the Source table has 34 columns, since we don't care about two of them, the Dest table should have 32 columns, if things are still in synch. OK, I think (insert burning sawdust smell here), I can use a SysObjects thang to count rows. BOL points out INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS as a possibility.
Here is the code I think (sawdust) can be used:select ((select count(*) from SourceDb.INFORMATION_SCHEMA.columns where table_name = 'Source') - (select count(*) from HISTSERVER.DestDb.INFORMATION_SCHEMA.columns where table_name = 'Dest')) as ColumnDiff
Trouble is...this fails because apparently the INFORMATION_SCHEMA thang doesn't do well with remote servers.
Can anyone figure a way around this, or suggest an alternative? I'm still looking, but thought I'd also toss it out onto the board for your generous consideration.
Thanks - and can you BELIEVE the year is already 1/12th of the way OVER?!?!?! Paul
Is there a way to take a snapshot of a table at precisely the same time on multiple servers and write the table snapshot to another 'work' database? I'm asking in this forum hoping that perhaps SSIS has a built in tool to help with this. I'm wanting to audit table(s) accross seven different servers. In order to do this I want to make sure that I have the table at the same moment in time on all the servers. I plan on using the tablediff utility to then compare each table on each server against one another. If somebody knows a better method to do this please let me know.
I have a report that was designed using SQL Reporting Services that sits on a SQL reporting server. It's nothing too exciting, it is essentially a three page application with legal jumbo on pages 2 and 3 and applicant data in fields on page 1.
We use rectangles to force page breaks to page 2 and to page 3.
When running the report on the report server, it shows and prints fine.
When running the report from the QA website internally, it shows and prints just fine.
When running the report from the production website from a machine internally, it shows and prints just fine.
When running the report from outside of the company network, the report is jacked. It obliterates large chunks of text, crams text together, and creates blank pages.
I need help in determining where I even begin with trouble shooting this!
I need to create a new table on a SQL Server 2005 Database, but the data needed for the table is kept in different databases on different servers.
Half the data is on the SQL 2005 database, so that shouldn't be too much of a problem, but the other half is on a SQL Express database on a different server, is it possible to write a T-SQL query to retrieve this data on the other server?
Normally I use a create table + insert into kind of query to create custom tables but I don't know how to connect to the SQL Express server/database using T-SQL (if it's possible at all?) to do this.
Any tips, hints, ideas very welcome. Please use small words and short sentences.
I am in the middle of a major migraton project, moving from x86 SQL 2000 to IA64 SQL 2005. I have a business need to link to several legacy servers. I have a number of problems I am trying to solve.
1) Linking a Kerberos server to a non-Kerberos server. 2) Linking x64 or IA64 servers to x86 servers. 3) Linking SQL 2005 to SQL 2000.
Two of the errors I am encountering are: ------------------------------ TCP Provider: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. Login failed for user '(null)'. Reason: Not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection. OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "SCDC250DB" returned message "Communication link failure". (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 10054) ------------------------------ And ------------------------------ The OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for the linked server "SCDC250DB" reported an error. Authentication failed. Cannot initialize the data source object of OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "SCDC250DB". OLE DB provider "SQLCLI" for linked server "SCDC250DB" returned message "Invalid authorization specification". (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 7399)
If someone has worked through these problems before, I would appreciate it if you could direct me to the relevant documentation to resolve these issues.
Thanks!
Brandon Forest
Database Administrator
Data & Web Services Team
Sutter Connect Information Technologyforesb@sutterhealth.org
I'm looking for a query that can "batch" update one table from another. For example, say there are fields on both tables like this: KeyField Value1 Value2 Value3 The two tables will match on "KeyField". I would like to write one SQL query that will update the "Value" fields in Table1 with the data from Table2 when there is a match.
I have an update trigger which fires from a transactiion table to update a parent record in another table. I am getting no errors, but also no update. Any help appreciated (see script below)
create trigger tr_cmsUpdt_meds on dbo.medisp for UPDATE as
if update(pstat) begin update med set REC_FLAG = 2 from deleted dt where med.uniq_id = dt.uniq_id and dt.pstat = 2 and dt.spec_flag = 'kop' end
I imported a SQL Table into SQL DataBase, But I can not update this table even with SQL Server management Studio When I change any data on mentioned table above, Red exclamation sign appears left of the record . How can I correct this problem? Thanks.
This program gets the values of A and B passed in. They are for table columns DXID and CODE. The textbox GET1 is initialized to B when the page is loaded. When I type another value in GET1 and try to save it, the original initialized value gets saved and not the new value I just typed in. A literal value, like "222" saves but the new GET1.TEXT doesn't.
