I am attempting to open up my ssis integration project but when I try to open up packages it says @ the bottom "Validating Sequence Container" and it just stays there. I cannot click on anything and nothing is responsive. Does anyone know why this is happening?
View 9 RepliesHas anyone ever seen this issue?
If i place a loop container inside a sequence container the connectors within the loop container disappear.... is this a bug - will the loop tasks still run in the correct order?? or will they fire off willy nilly??
i am trying to insert data into a table and roll back if this fails. What i have done is created an Execute SQL task with a SQL statement of BEGIN TRANS .. if the constraint = success then it goes to a Sequence Conatiner that amoungst other thing includes an Execute SQl task that does INSERT statement . outsied of the container i have 2 execute sql tasks that to a COMMIT TRANS ond a ROLLBACK Trans . when executing it i get an error the Rollback Transaction request has no corrasponding Begin tranaction. I have seen this in a SSIS created by one of the Wizards and it works fine, im oviously missing something fundemental .. any pointers ?
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hi people, i have crashed on a this problem. I have a sequence container and on this container I have set "FailPackageOnFailure=true". Now in this container there are 2 tasks. The first one is preceeding the second one. Now both this task have set "FailParentOnFailure=true". Both task are the same and their purpose is to drop table A.
1) I run the package and it fails, because there is no table to drop.
2) I create the table manualy and run package again.
3) I see, that the first task is beeing just SIMPLE OMMITED and the second task runs
In general, everytime any task in a sequence container invokes failure, next time is beeing ommited regardelss of its status. How can this be fixed ? Thanks
I have a package that is going to have roughly 20 sequence containers in it. Each of these containers is going to have the same start task and the same end task. The data flow task(s) in each sequence container will differ. So I was thinking I would create a custom sequence container that would implement the common steps I need in each of my containers. I started to create a task that would inherit from Sequence, but I found that it is sealed. Bummer.
What is involved in creating a sequence task by inheriting from Task? I see that Sequence implements IDtsSequence. But looking at this interface, it seems like I would have to build the logic to execute the workflow contained in my sequence.
Any pointers?
-Darrell
I have a package that contains multiple SEQUENCE CONTAINERS,
each execute a bunch of tasks. I try to use the script task to dynamically
disable or enable each of these SEQUENCE CONTAINERS base on parameters that pass
in from parent package, but for some reason, I can€™t set the disable value to
True/False at runtime. Anyone knows how to do this?
Hi everyone,
Our VB application throws .dtsx on-demand by using Threads. Everything's fine but a little detail:
when it goes to launch a SSIS package with a only task, concretely a Sequence Container task (empty, without tasks inside) fails Prevalidate method.
Attach you the snippet of code:
pkgResults = pkg.Validate(Nothing, Nothing, EventsSSIS, Nothing) -- pkgResults returns me Failure {1}
If pkgResults = DTSExecResult.Success Then
..
..
Validate method, as usual, do EVENTSSSIS.PreValidate event and after that, returns instead of follow raising events.
Perhaps it's mandatory to set one task as a minimum, I don't get the point at all
Any guidance or thought will be welcomed,
Thanks in advance and regards,
I am working with SSIS and use Sequence Conatiners extensively. I have become frustrated enought to stop what I am doing and create this thread in the MSDN SSIS forum.
When working with expanded container objects, constraint objects connecting control objects not in the container can be seen. The control object is hidden (sent ot back) but the constraint objects remain visible (sent to front.)
This is extremely frustrating as the unwanted constraint object can be interacted with and not only interfers with the visual presentation during design, it also allows for unintended changes.
I have implemented SSIS upgrades from MDSN but either haven't implemented the appropriate upgrade or an upgrade doesn't exist for this.
Are there any suggestins or comments that can help me get my sanity back?
Yours,
srankin1957
Hi,
I have a sequence container that contains a bunch of tasks.
I have a failure constraint that goes from the sequence container to execute sql task. The execute sql task then sends out an email upon a failure of the container, which is triggered by the failure of any given task inside the container.
My question is, is there a way to pass a SPECIFIC error message to the execute sql task?? That is, if one of the components inside the sequence container fails, I would like the email message to reflect the error message of that particular component, not just that the container failed, as there are different levels of severity of errors, depending on which component failed.
Thanks much
I have (6) sequence containers, each with a data flow task and script task. The script task renames the file and the data flow uses an OLE DB Source connection to export to a flat file using the Flat File Destination connection.For sI have been unable to move from the 1st sequence container to the 2nd (and the next and so on...). I am trying to do this "on success" (on failure I generate an email notification within each container), but am apparently missing a piece to this because after the sequence container executes, which it does successfully, nothing happens.
View 4 Replies View RelatedI am creating a staging database in which I am loading required tables from 2 different sources.
I have 30 different tables to load from source 1 and 10 different tables from source 2.
This is the way I am doing, in Control flow task I am using Sequence container and in that I included the data flow task, the data flow task
has source OLD DB connection from where I select the table and then destination OLE DB connection where I load the data.
So for 30 tables I have one Sequence container with 30 different data flow task and each data flow task has OLE DB source and OLD DB destination.
I wanted to find out if this is the efficient way to do, or if there is any other way to do this.
And for source 2 shall I put in another package or shall I use the same package with different sequence container and follow the same steps
as for Source 1 tables.
Please advice.
Thanks,
I have a sequence container in my Package and this sequence has more than one control flow tasks.
Can I create the checkpoints such that only the failed component inside the sequence container runs again and not the other successful components/tasks in the sequence container?
I have a Sequence Container with an Exec SQL Task in it. I can't delete the task or the container. I can't disable them.
Here's how I got there:
I put a Dataflow Task and the Exec SQL Task in the container, then set a precedence constraint. Lots of complaints moving either of them. Managed to delete the Dataflow Task, but now can't do anything.
Any dieas?
Laurence
I have an SSIS package that is pretty simple.
An Execute SQL task returns one row with two values that are correctly stored into variables.
Based off those two variables, a sequence container is chosen to execute.
That sequence container then does magic. The last step of the container has an execute SQL task that runs and stores the result in a variable - let's call this[User::result] with type Int32.
Based off the value in [User::result] one of two final tasks run. A non zero value executes one task; a zero value executes another. Basically,SOMETHING runs after this.
Simple? I thought so... except Step 4 doesn't work. If I set a post-execute breakpoint on the sequence container, the variables are populated as expected, but nothing else runs. If I add another task to run (without a conditional expression) to run after the sequence container completes, the pre-execute breakpoint shows the data looking exactly as I expect.
Those script tasks are just MessageBox.Show calls and the expression, as you can see, doesn't use variables at all.
I have a sequence container with 2 task into. If one of the tasks alert a failure then the sequence container should alert a failure too, but it doesn't. For testing I forced the error with setting the attribute ForceExecutionResult to Failure for one of the tasks. The task fails, but the sequence container succeeds.
I tried:
- changed the Precedence Constraints from AND to OR between the 2 tasks into the sequence container
- changed the attribute FailPackageOnFailure setting True
- changed the attribute FailParentOnFailure setting True
but nothing happened.
I've created an SSIS package that contains a Sequence Container with TransactionOption = Required. Within the container, there are a number of Execute Package Task components running in a serial fashion which are responsible for performing "Upserts" to dimension and fact tables on our production server. The destination db configuration is loaded into each of these packages using an XML configuration file. The structure of these "Upsert" packages are nearly identical, while some execute correctly and others fail. Those that fail all provide the same error messages.
These messages appear during Pre-Execute
[Insert new dimension record [1627]] Error: The AcquireConnection method call to the connection manager "DW" failed with error code 0xC0202009.
[DTS.Pipeline] Error: component "Insert new dimension record" (1627) failed the pre-execute phase and returned error code 0xC020801C.
... which are followed by
[Connection manager "DW"] Error: The SSIS Runtime has failed to enlist the OLE DB connection in a distributed transaction with error 0x8004D00A "Unable to enlist in the transaction.".
[Connection manager "DW"] Error: An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x8004D00A.
While still in debug mode, I can check the properties of the "DW" connection and successfully test the connection within the packages that fail.
The same packages run successfully when tested outside the container (i.e. no transaction) or when the configuration file is modified to point the "DW" connection to a development version of the db which is running on the same server as the source database.
I have successfully used DTCtester to verify that transactions from source to destination server are working correctly. Also tried setting DelayValidation = True with no change. I have opened a case with Microsoft and am awaiting a reply so I thought I'd throw a post out here to see if anyone else has encountered this and might have a resolution. Here's some more on the environment:
Source Server:
Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP1
SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition SP0
Destination Server:
Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP1
SQL Server 2000 Enterprise Edition SP3 (clustered)
Thank you in advance for any feedback you might be able to provide.
KS
CREATE TRIGGER accountI ON [dbo].[account]
FOR UPDATE
AS
declare @a decimal
declare @b varchar
declare @c varchar
declare @d decimal
declare @e decimal
declare @f decimal
declare @g decimal
declare @h decimal
declare @i decimal
declare @j decimal
declare @k decimal
declare @l decimal
declare @m decimal
declare @n decimal
declare @o decimal
declare @p decimal
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'Cash' or accountType = 'Accounts Receivable' or accountType = 'Inventory' or accountType = 'Other Current Asset'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @d = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'Fixed Asset' or accountType = 'Accumulated Depreciation'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @e = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'Other Asset'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @f = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'Accounts Payable' or accountType = 'Other Current Liabilities'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @g = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursorr INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'Long-Term Liabilities'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @h = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'Equity-Retained Earnings' or accountType = 'Equity-Not Closed' or accountType = 'Equity-For Closure' or accountType = 'Income'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @i = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'cogs'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @j = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
Declare tblCursor Cursor for
select begBalance,accountDescription, accountType from account
where accountType = 'expenses'
open tblCursor
Fetch Next From Stock_Cursor INTO @a,@b,@c
While (@@Fetch_STATUS = 0)
begin
select @k = @d + @a
end
Fetch Next From tblCursor INTO @a,@b,@c
insert dbo.financials (totalCurrentAssets, totalPropEquip, totalOtherAssets, totalCurrentLiabilities, totalLongTermLiabilities, totalEquity, totalIncome, totalCogs, totalExpenses, totalAssets, totalLiabilitiesEquity, totalNetSales, totalNetIncome)values (@d, @e, @f, @g, @h, @i, @j, @k, @l, @m, @n, @o, @p)
I am running NT4.0 with sp6 and SQL server 6.5 with sp3 and my system periodically freeze. The CPU shows 100% and Sql does not respond. In the NT event viewer I get a message SQLCTR60 DB-LIBRARY error - SQL Server connection timed out. How do I go about finding out what is wrong.
Thanks in advance!
Betty
Good Morning,
I want to freeze my colum headings which are in the table header section, can this be done?
Thanks,
Rhonda
Is there functionality within the Table or Matrix objects to freeze columns or row headers when you scroll thru a wide or long report? Similay to the freeze panes functionality in Excel.
Thanks
I'm very new to SQL servers. We're running SQL 6.5-SP4 and have three applications using different databases on the server (NT4-SP3).
App 1. Written in PowerBuilder using 32bit DB_LIB, NWLink IPX/SPX.
App 2. Written in VFP 5.0a using ODBC32, NWLink IPX/SPX
App 3. Written in VB using ODBC16, NWLink IPX/SPX
Something happens, which freezes all 32bit connections and prevents any other 32bit connects. Which means I can't get Enterprise Manager to connect! This does not affect the ODBC16 clients?!?!
So far the only way, I have found, to clear and fix is to get all 32bit users out of their apps and the server becomes available again. There's got to be something to prevent this, any ideas? Is there a way to trace this to find the culprit?
Thank you for any and all help,
Jim
<jpeppercorn@jhcb.com>
Her is what I'd like to do:
- Create and populate a table
- Index it on a 'reference' field
- Then update the table by using the index but WITHOUT updating the index (I'd like to have it available for the WHERE clause but I don't need to updtae it)
- Eventually, i'd like to re-index the whole table
Is that possible?
Thank you for your help...
Hi,
I saw in some websites that there are functions freeze and thaw in SQL server.I want to freeze the SQL server for some time and then use the thaw to unfreeze.I want to know how it could be done in SQL server 2005
Thanks in Advance
Hello,
I have a very wide report that uses a table control. I would like to "freeze" the two leftmost columns so that they remain visible when the user is scrolling horizontally (sideways). Is this possibe?
Thanks,
BCB
I want the header to be visible while scrolling. After changing on the static Properties FixedData=True, it is working on BIDS and Internet Explorer 11 . But is does not work in Chrome. Most of my users are using Chrome. Is there any way to fix it for google Chrome.
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Our HP Proliant ML 330 G5 (3.0 Duo Core Xeon, 4 GBs RAM) server is running Windows 2003 R2 Standard 32 bit ( Win SP2) and SQL Server 2005 Standard (SQL SP2 €“ version 9.00.3054.00(Intel X86)). At random times every 1-14 days, our server will lock up. While the Windows Login screen or the standard Windows screen saver is viewable on the server still, the computer becomes completely non-responsive. The keyboard and mouse do not work and we can no longer connect to the server via a Terminal Service connection. We are able to ping the server while it is locked up though. The only way to get the server back up and running is by doing a hard power down and then power it back up.
Upon getting the server back up and running, everything goes back to working as normal with both Windows and SQL. There is nothing in any of the event logs indicating any type of issue prior to the server locking up. We are really at a loss on where to start troubleshooting this. We have no reason to think it is a hardware issue at this point but are not ruling that out.
Any ideas what we can do to start tracking down the cause of this problem?
Ok... I know this is something that I've seen and probably done before....
I have a value that will show up multiple times in a table. I want to order the table by that value and then count up from 1 to however many items that it shows up as.
The example below shows the results I want. Value1 and Value2 are in the table, LineNumber is what I need to generate.
Value1
Value2
LineNumber
1
Hey
1
1
Can
2
1
Someone
3
1
Help
4
1
With
5
1
This
6
2
Very
1
2
Simple
2
2
Issue
3
2
As
4
2
I
5
3
Have
1
3
A
2
3
Brain
3
3
Freeze
4
--Thanks--
For anyone who can help me resolve this minor data issue. I am trying to clean a phone number column so that all numbers are reflected in the same way. I have phone numbers in my column in this this format:
(123)123-1234
123-123-1234
(123) 123-1234
How can I clean this column so that the numbers are reflected in this way: 1231231234
I'm having brain freez right now. Help me please!!! Thanks in Advance
How can i freeze the headers while exporting the report to excel? will this works in ssrs 2008 / 2008 r2?
View 2 Replies View RelatedI would like to add database to single user mode to enable broker. So, i have tried this:
ALTER DATABASE myDb SET SINGLE_USER WITH ROLLBACK IMMEDIATE
ALTER DATABASE myDb SET ENABLE_BROKER
ALTER DATABASE myDb SET MULTI_USER
But the query works more than half an hour then i have stopped it. i guess it has infinite loop, I get also many of this messages:
Nonqualified transactions are being rolled back. Estimated rollback completion: 0%.
There is no other transaction also there is no other user connections. So, what happens?
Hello All again,
I have another question, I would like to validate the data in a sql table before my code runs and inserts duplicate information. Can anyone help out with this via example?
I have one table called product 1 and the second table is called product 2 i have DirNo, ProdNo, UpdCode and BranchOffice as fields i whant to loop trought every record in table product 1 and check in table product 2 if the record is the same and exist i f it does go to next record, if not delete the record in product 1 and move to the next record and so on. could someone please help me. iam very new at this.
thanks
This question is rather open ended. Basically, I'm wondering the different approaches people use when validating input into a stored procedure. The rest of my post just describes a rather simple approach I'm using, and some ideas I have, but I'm eager to know what others are doing. So, if you'd like to comment on this, feel free to do so without reading the following.
I often find myself calling a stored procedure, and needing to validate some of the inputs before proceeding with the rest of the tasks. Such as, making sure a matching record isn't already in the database before adding a new record. Ideally, this sort of validation will report back to the user interface immediately, so that the user can get real-time response to their form input, instead of the all-too-common approach of redirecting to an error page if something goes wrong in the database transaction.
It's also convenient, at times (though perhaps not efficient in all cases) to let your database perform business rules validation of inputs (let the user interface make sure data types are valid, and such), so that you duplicate less code in the event that the stored procedure is called in more than one context.
To address these issues, I've taken to making two stored procedures instead of one. Let the stored procedure be called AddRecord. I'd create that, as well as the procedure named AddRecord_Validate, which would take identical inputs as AddRecord, whenever possible. Nearly the first thing done in AddRecord would be to execute AddRecord_Validate. The user interface would also call AddRecord_Validate, and return any validation errors to the user interface.
This seems rather convenient to me, in many cases, but often it doesn't work as well as I prefer. It's not uncommon for me to end up performing the same queries in the _Validate SP as I do in the parent SP. For example, let's say I'm passing a parameter that I use to look up a record I plan to edit. In my validation, I query the database to verify that the record is found. But in the parent SP, I run the same query again in order to get the stored ID of the record I need to edit. This ends up duplicating queries, making the pair of procedures less efficient on the whole, as well as introducing the likelihood of bugs when code changes in one of the SPs, but not the other.
So I've been brainstorming other approaches. The first idea is to execute a single stored procedure, but when I want to run it in "validation" mode, I simply rollback the transaction. This would let me know if the stored procedure would have run with the specified input, but won't ultimately change anything. Unfortunately, I see some badness in this, such as the entire SP perhaps taking a lot longer to execute that simple validation would have, and side-effects such as incrementing Sequences, or locking the database, and basically just doing a whole lot more work during validation than needs to be done.
The next idea was to require that the user specify the "run mode" via a parameter, either 'validate' or 'run'. Then, all of the validation would be performed at the top of the stored procedure, and a simple IF statement would exit the SP before actually making any changes if it's run in 'validate' mode. Otherwise, it will continue, and do the real work. The only real downside I see to this is forcing the developer to deal with an extra parameter. And, perhaps, it's not really a "relational" approach.
So, what do the rest of you do?